2 Corinthians 5:21 – To Be Sin For Us, Who Knew No Sin
The King James translation of this passage is somewhat confusing which reads as follows:
2 Cor 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
This passage is even more confusing because many of us had been taught that “all men” were somehow born into this world with sin in their bodies from birth. We were taught that we all are “born sinners” (which would also include the many infants who died at birth or prematurely, or accidentally during infancy, mentally disabled, all the many non-English speaking natives, etc..).
First, there is no such scripture that makes this claim about men “birthed as sinners.” We sin ONLY when we transgress against (disobey) God’s law (1 John 3:4) and that is why the scripture says;
(Psa 119:11) “Thy word have I hid in mine heart, that I might not sin against thee (God).”
Where there is no law, sin is not imputed against those individuals (Rom 5:13). In other words you have to be made aware of God’s law in order to “disobey” God’s law, you cannot be disobedient to someone of whom you have no prior knowledge of, otherwise infants and children who died young (those who didn’t even have the capability to speak or mentality to understand) would be facing eternal damnation for not adhering to these types of fictitious, man-made, non-biblical criteriums. (Ref: infant sections on babies: 13. What Is Sin)
Second, another passage frequently referenced is (Rom 5:12) which says all have sinned but it does NOT say all men are BORN sinners! The Bible doesn’t mention babies needing to be baptized, repent of their sins, confess Jesus, or even worship God during this stage of their growth and development. If Jesus was indeed truly 100% human (not part human) and the true seed of David as the Bible declares then his “birth” experience is the same as any other infant who enters into the world by the birth of a woman. Jesus was sinless because he committed no sin, it had nothing to do with the manner of His birth into the world.
Note: There are two infants whom the Bible clearly reflects this to be the case, the first was John (Luke 1:13-15).
Luke 1:13 But the angel said unto him, Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John.
Luke 1:14 And thou shalt have joy and gladness; and many shall rejoice at his birth.
Luke 1:15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother’s womb.
We know that God (God’s Spirit / the Holy Ghost – 1 Cor 3:16, 6:19) can indwell our human bodies, even the bodies of infants, which clearly indicates that there was/is no requirement of repentance, water baptism, or speaking in tongues at this stage of life. This then presents a serious problem for those trying to explain John’s birth, if all infants are “alleged” to be sinners at birth. (Was John a sinner born with the Holy Ghost? )
And as surprising as it may seem to some, the phrase that “the Holy Ghost won’t dwell in an unclean temple” is not actually in the Bible, it is however implied, Paul said, “If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.” (1 Cor 3:17)
And finally, we have the record of this child Jesus (Yahshua), the seed of David, the son of Mary (Luke 1:31-32, 35, 1 Peter 2:21-22).
1Peter 2:21 For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:
1Peter 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
This writing in 1 Peter indicates that we are able to live a sin-free life patterned after Christ. It doesn’t say Jesus was born without sin, or that Jesus could not sin, but who DID NO sin!!! How did Jesus accomplish this feat, he “.. committed himself to him (God) that judgeth righteously:” and because God was with Christ (Acts 10:38, 1 Peter 2:23), and if we have God in our lives and are obedient to His will (Acts 5:32, 1 Thessalonians 4:8) we too will be sinless.
Third, some present Psa 51:5 “Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.”
Here again, the translated meaning is the same as the writer saying “I was born into a sinful world” (iniquity, or sin, was “in” the world) which was true then and remains true yet today. (Ref: 8. What Is The Difference Between Sin, Sinful Nature & Sinful Flesh?)
God had “purposed” (made G4160) Christ to be a sin offering for us (1 John 4:10-14, 1 Peter 1:20, Rev 13:8). Naturally, any sacrificial offering presented to God had to be the “best” offering man had to offer God for any atonement. Christ took it upon himself to fulfill God’s plan (Luke 22:42, John 8:29), God did not force Christ to obey Him (John 8:26, 28).
Note: If Christ actually existed up in Heaven, with the angels (as a living being or as God) prior to his human birth, Jesus would be something other than a real human (he would be an alien). Furthermore, any human offspring could not possibly exist prior to the existence of its parents (King David, Mary, or God, the Father of Jesus) existed.
The only way you can PRE-exist, your actual existence is in the thought of someone else (God)!
Conclusion:
There are at least two other translations that better convey what this particular passage is actually speaking about:
(2Cor 5:21 NLT) “For God made Christ, who never sinned, to be the offering for our sin, so that we could be made right with God through Christ.”
and from the Book of Yahweh, (pg. 904) reads as follows:
21 For Yahweh made Him, Who knew no sin, to be a sin offering for us, that we might become the righteousness of Yahweh, through Him.
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