"There Is One God And One Mediator Between God And Men, The Man Christ Jesus" 
1 Timothy (2:5)

New Testament: Misinterpreted Scriptures

 

The Oneness Of God In Christ: Understanding Misinterpreted Scriptures Of The New Testament

 

What Doctrine Are You Preaching & Teaching?

 

 

Luke 9:27 “some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God”

 

Many assume that Jesus was referring to the faithful (his disciples and possibly some of his followers) who would be the ones to “see” (enter in) the kingdom of God in this passage (Luke 9:27), however, if this was the case it would not had been a true statement (at least not literally) because the people that were there listening did die (literally), and the kingdom of God has not yet appeared.

Since we know Jesus always told the “truth” (John 14:6, 1 Pt 2:22) we must see under what circumstance this passage (Luke 9:27) remains true.

So what does “till they see the kingdom of God” mean? To understanding this passage we need to first address both the “kingdom” and the ability to “see” the kingdom aspect of this passage.

 

“Kingdom”

The terms “Kingdom of God” (found 70 times) and “Kingdom of Heaven” (found 33 times) are used interchangeably and both terminologies are only contained in the New Testament portion of the Bible (Mark 1:15, Luke 21:31, Matt. 3:2, 4:17, 10:7). This also let’s us know that the Old Testament saints had no prior knowledge of ever inheriting this kingdom of God or any expectation of a resurrection that would be made available through Christ unto eternal life (Colossians 1:26-27).

 

In addition, these terminologies are at times used differently. At times this phrase is used spiritually and other times literally, which is the mysteries Jesus speaks about, made known to some and others it is spoken as parables (Luke 8:10, 13:18-21)

 

(Spiritual)

1. In one statement (Luke 17:20-21 –  “the kingdom of God is within you.” ), Jesus was declaring a spiritual truth that Israel did not see. He clearly was not declaring that a physical kingdom, with its Capital City (Jerusalem) on this Earth (Jeremiah 23:5, Psalms 48:2, Rev 21:2, 10), would be within the physical body of every believer.

 

(Literal or Physical)

2. In several other passages (in reference to Luke 9:27) we are given clear indications that the kingdom of God (at this time) is a place outside the body of man and up in heaven (Heb 12:22-24, Rev 3:12, 12:10, 21:2, 21:10) waiting to come down.

 

There are also two other factors to consider on this matter concerning “seeing” the kingdom of God.

 

 

“See”

 A Vision or Revelation

1.  One factor to consider is the documented experience of the apostle John. John had a vision (or revelation – the ability to view or perceive something) of things to come (Rev 1:1-3), one of which clearly appears to indicate he “saw” (Rev 1:1, “shew unto his servants“) the kingdom of our God (Rev 12:10) while he was yet alive in exile on the isle of Patmos (Rev 1:9).

 

In Hebrew (H7200) and in Greek (G3708) the words translated “see” can also mean “to discern or to perceive.” The Hebrew word ra’a is used of both seeing with the eyes and knowing something, or perceiving it (Gen. 16:4; Exod. 32:1; Num. 20:29). Similarly, the Greek word horao, translated “see” in John 1:18, 6:46; and 3 John 1:11, can mean “to see with the eyes” or “to see with the mind, to perceive, know.” Even in English, one of the definitions for “see” is “to know or understand.” For example, when two people are discussing something, one might say to the other, “I see what you mean.”

However, this is probably not the best understanding to adhere to for several reasons;

a. God’s Kingdom is not part of nor within this “sinful” earth realm (not of this world) but away in a place called heaven.

b. God’s dwelling place is “up” in heaven (caught up)

 

 

2.  However, Jesus’ words were not necessarily concerning those who would attain the Kingdom of God, but more likely it was meant to be a warning to some present who would not attain the Kingdom of God.

In other words, there were some who were standing there (in attendance) who took no heed to do what Jesus had taught and it is those who will see him at his second coming after they are raised, but will be condemned. Up to that point, none of them (nor you and I) will not have “tasted” true death, because although their current lives came to an end, they, as Jesus says in other places, will be just “sleeping” awaiting the resurrection (Acts 24:15). The taste of real death is the second death (Rev 20:11-14), and they won’t experience it until they have seen Jesus as judge in his kingdom of God (Acts 17:31,  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 (NLT)).

 

Note: If this were not the case, why does Jesus say they will see him and then “taste death?” Who attains the kingdom of God and then dies? It is only in this setting that this could occur.

 

 

 

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Luke 10:18 “And he said unto them, I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven”

In Chapter 10, we find Christ sending out seventy more disciples at one time to continue working miracles and to preach (Luke 10:1-3).

The mission of the Seventy is clearly distinguished from and contrasted with that of the Twelve by the word ‘others’ in verse 1, which points back to Luke 9:1, yet both were sent to prepare the way for Christ’s personal ministry.

 

Luke 9:1-2 (KJV) “Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases. 2 And he sent them to preach the kingdom of God, and to heal the sick.”

 

(Luke 10:18)

I beheld Satan …  Although various interpretations of this scripture exist, I find myself in agreement with several commentators who take note that Jesus had transferred (or given) power to these 70 followers. “Satan” here evidently denotes the prince of the devils and it was through this transfer of power that demons were driven out and Satan was suffering defeat. We know this from the dialogue; the dialogue was regarding their power over evil spirits. “Lightning” is an image of “speediness” or “quickness.” I saw Satan fall “quickly” or rapidly – as quick as lightning. The phrase “from heaven” is to be referred to the lightning, and does not mean that he saw “Satan” fall “from heaven,” but that he fell as quickly as lightning from heaven or from the clouds. The whole expression means this,

“I saw at your command devils immediately depart, as quick as a flash of lightning. I gave you this power – I saw it put forth – and I now give, in addition to this, the power to tread on serpents,” etc.

 

(Luke 10:19)

Behold, I give you power to tread on serpents and scorpions. The power to tread upon serpents is repeated in Mark 16:18 and exemplified in Paul’s case in Malta (Acts 28:3-5). Certainly Jesus does not mean this promise to create presumption or foolhardiness for he repelled the enemy’s suggestion on the pinnacle of the temple. But protection from physical harm is not the main point in this struggle with Satan “the enemy” (1Peter 5:8). The devil, his powers, and all of his emissaries, who, for their craft and cunning, and for their poisonous and hurtful nature and influence, may be compared to serpents and scorpions:

Some argue that by serpents and scorpions our Lord could have been referring to the scribes and Pharisees, whom he calls serpents and a brood of vipers Matthew 23:33. Through the subtlety and venom of the old serpent, the devil, they opposed him and his doctrine; and, by trampling on these they should get a complete victory over such. It seems however, best, in the case of this peculiar promise, to interpret the Lord’s words as referring to spiritual powers of evil, taking the serpent and scorpion as symbols of these. It should be remembered that the subject of conversation between the Master and his servants was the conflict with and victory ever these awful powers hostile to the human race (see Psalms 91:13).

 

(Luke 10:20)

Names are written in heaven – The names of citizens of a city or state were accustomed to be written in a book or register, from which they were blotted out when they became unworthy, or forfeited the favor of their country. Compare Psa 69:28; Exo 32:32; Deut 9:14; Rev 3:5. That their “names were written in heaven,” means that they were “citizens” of heaven; that they were friends of God and “approved” by him, and would be permitted to dwell with him. This was of far more value than all “earthly” honor, power, or wealth, and “in” this people should rejoice more than in eminent endowments of influence, learning, talents, or possessions.

 

 

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John 1:1-4 – In The Beginning Was The Word

 

John 1:1-4

1 In the beginning was the Word <1>Note: The “Word” G3056 does NOT equate or translate into “Jesus” G2424, these two words are clearly not One and the same. The Word was God, not Jesus, but God’s word/thought/will/plan was given to us or “spoken” through Jesus. John 5:37, 12:49, 14:10, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him <2> Ref. Verses Where “He” & “Him” Should Be Referred To As “It”; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

 

 

Understanding John 1:1-4

 

*Note: It is far easier to understand this passage of scripture after you first review the following links:

(The Expressions Of God)( The Word Was God)( The Word Was Made Flesh)(Verses Where “He” & “Him” Should Be Referred To As “It”)

 

You cannot begin to understand the above passage correctly until you first understand the word flexibility and pronoun structuring of the Greek language. A single Greek word can have multiple meanings and be correctly translated into many different English words. However, choosing the correct or best English word to transliterate into scripture is always the challenge for linguistics and translators. When an incorrect English word choice is applied it presents the incorrect intent (message) of that passage and usually many other scriptures then appear to also contradict or conflict with one another.

In this particular passage, we are dealing with the Greek word “logos.” This particular Greek word “Logos” – (G3056) can also be correctly translated as, or interpreted as, being the thought of God (what God was thinking or planning).

Just for the purpose of clarity, if we associate this Greek word “logos” as the “thought” or “plan” of God, it becomes much clearer and easier to understand and harmonizes much better with other scriptures that relate to God’s Word (His thought, purpose, will, plan, etc.), which was made known (manifest, revealed) to mankind through His Son Jesus, “the Word (plan of God) made flesh.”

 

For example, the above passage could also be correctly worded in English as follows:

  1. In the beginning was the plan(thought) of God, and the plan was with God, and the plan was God’s.
  2. The same plan was in the beginning with God.
  3. All things we’re done according to it, and without it nothing was done, that was done.
  4. In this plan was life, and that life was the light to mankind.

 

The Book Of Yahweh reads as follows:

  1. In the beginning was the plan of Yahweh, and the plan was with Yahweh, and the plan was Yahweh’s.
  2. The same plan was in the beginning with Yahweh.
  3. All things we’re done according to it, and without it nothing was done, that was done.
  4. In this plan was life, and that life was the light to mankind.

 

 

 

God’s Word/Thought = God’s Plan/Purpose/Will

 

Ephesians 1:9   (KJV)

Having made known unto us the mystery of his will,(plan) according to his good pleasure which he hath purposed himself:

 

Ephesians 1:11   (KJV)

11  In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:(plan)

Ephesians 3:11   (KJV)

11 According to the eternal purpose (plan) which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord:”

 

2 Timothy 1:9   (KJV)

9  Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose (plan) and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,

 

 

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References   [ + ]

John 1:10 – He was in the world, and the world was made by him,…..

 

This is a passage (John 1:10) many have interpreted incorrectly by asserting that it indicates Jesus as being the creator of the world. First, that is not what it says; and second, the context of this section begins in verse 6 (John 1:6) and it starts by telling us, “There came a man who was sent by God.” This lets us know that in this passage of John 1:10 the “He” and “Him” is in reference to God (John 1:1-5), not Christ.

John also tells us that God is the light (1Jn 1:5), “the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.” John 1:9 (KJV)

In other words, God is light means that God is the source and measure of all that is true. Another way to put it would be that nothing is truly understood until it is understood in the light of God. What is the main value of light? Negatively, it helps you avoid danger. Positively, it helps you reach what you are after.

 

“This then is the message which we have heard of him, and declare unto you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all.
6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:
7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
1 John 1:5-7 (KJV)”

 

God was in the world in many ways (Rom 1:19-20), including through His Son Jesus (Acts 2:22), though most of the world did not recognize him. He came unto his own by sending Jesus Christ to them (John 3:34), but even then many did not receive God, in that they rejected His emissary (John 12:49-50).

 

 

 

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John 3:3 – Except a man be born again

 

Conversion: is the process of being born again, “figuratively.
Resurrection: is the transition of being born again,“literally.

 

For Complete Details:

John 3:13 – And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven

 

No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven. <1>John 3:13 – NIV-Text omits who is in heaven.

John 3:13 (NKJV)

 

According to Jesus no man (John 3:13) (or no human) has ever entered into heaven “but he” (except Jesus), the “son of man” (the son of a human). I admit that the grammatical structure of this statement can be understandably confusing. But if you do not keep the proper perspective that there is only one God and that God is NOT a man (human), you can find yourself distorting this passage as indicating that God is somehow also called the Son of Man, which is a terminology never used by any of the prophets, apostles or Jesus to describe God the Father. This title is only given to a man.

There are however several undisputed and important facts that can be obtained from this passage.

1.  Jesus is clearly and specifically speaking about humans only (no man); identifying which humans, if any, who have (or have not) entered into heaven itself.

2.  Jesus clearly and specifically claims himself to be the ONLY man (the only human/the son of man), who has ever “ascended up” to heaven.

3.  Jesus also did not refer to himself as being God anywhere in this passage.

In this passage, the reference to “man” is speaking of the spiritual essence of man (his human soul/spirit) not his physical body. We know this because:

(1 Corinthians 15:50)  “Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

 

Note:

Also in this passage, the reference to “who came down from heaven” is arguably a matter of interpretation. Many would like to argue that this indicates Jesus was actually God, unfortunately Jesus is speaking and he is not proclaiming himself to be God but rather he is professing himself to be a man speaking the words of God. It is better supported that this is in reference to the fact the Jesus came from God (from heaven). (See also: For I Came Down From Heaven John 6:38)

(John 3:34-36) “For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him. 35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into his hand. 36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.”

 

Note:

1.  This is another example where there is variation in some of the “original manuscripts”; some contain this section as worded in bold italic others do not. <2>Remember ONLY the scriptures are recorded as being inspired of GOD, yet we have known variations that exist in some of the original manuscripts. Therefore, we must always be mindful that not every translation will necessarily be the same nor does it mean the translation used is the correct one!

(John 3:13 (NIV))  “No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man. <3>Some manuscripts add, who is in heaven

 

2.  Most notably however, in reference to who is in heaven, Jesus did not claim to be God rather he claimed himself to be the “Son of man”, and we know neither Jesus or God told lies about who they were. One was the Father, the other (Jesus) was called the Son.

 

 

 

Enoch, Elijah and Abraham

By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him. (Hebrews 11:5)

And it came to pass, as they still went on, and talked, that, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven. (2 Kings 2:11)

 

Note:

It should be noted that the Scriptures do not record the specific place to which Enoch was taken–only that he was taken.

For Elijah, he was taken up to heaven. However, the word heaven is used to refer to different things, namely the sky, the domain of the stars, and the dwelling place of God. It seems that Elijah however arose into the sky.

 

 

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References   [ + ]

John 5:43, John 10:25 – in my Father’s name

 

The following passages are similar in that they simply indicate by “whose authority” or “on whose behalf” something is done.

 

(John 5:43) “I am come in my Father’s name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive”

(John 10:25) “Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father’s name, they bear witness of me”

(Mat 18:5) “And whoso shall receive one such little child in my name receiveth me.”

 

This is illustrated throughout the Bible

(Ref: Understanding The Phrase “In the Name of..” )

 

 

 

 

John 6:38, John 6:41-42, John 6:51, 58 – “came down from heaven”

 

The interpretations for these passages usually fall into one of two groups:

 

1.) Some interpret these passages of scripture to mean that Almighty God literally sent his Son Jesus, who was up in heaven with God the Father, DOWN FROM HEAVEN into the Earth to take the form of a man. Jesus (God the SON) had TWO natures at the same time; one totally divine (as God the SON) and the other totally human.

 
2.) Others interpret these passages to mean God Himself literallyCAME DOWN FROM HEAVEN” to earth in the form of a man (as an infant), and in essence while God was here on earth, God “pretended” to be his own Son (Jesus), who was “sent” by God (Himself) while God was in His own personal body of fleshly, named Jesus.

 

Although there are many other differences that distinguish these groups apart (Oneness/Trinitarians) they both teach and instill in their members the same non-biblical “created concept” called incarnation, that God was “totally human” by means of incarnation. God embodied himself in a body of flesh (Jesus) and by doing such that made God “totally human” (or a complete human) while at the same time he was “totally God.”

(Ref: The Difference Between Manifestation And Incarnation)

 

Since neither of the above claims are correct, and in order to correctly understand what it may mean when something is stated as “coming from Heaven”  it is imperative that you first understand the facts about Jesus “the Man,” before he died and was resurrected up to Heaven to be with God. (Hebrews 4:14, 9:24) (See also:  Acts 7:55-56; Romans 8:34; Ephesians 1:20; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:3, Hebrews 8:1, Hebrews 10:12, Hebrews 12:2; 1 Peter 3:22)

 

 

The truth is it was common for the Jewish people to say that something “came down from heaven” if God were its source or origin.

 

For example:

 

(Mal. 3:10) When God wanted to tell the people that He would bless them if they gave their tithes, He told them that He would open the windows of “heaven” and pour out a blessing. Of course, everyone understood the idiom being used, and no one believed that God would literally pour things out of heaven. They knew that the phrase meant that God was the origin of the blessings they received.

 

(Matt. 21:25) “John’s baptism—where did it come from? Was it from heaven or from men?” Of course, the way that John’s baptism would have been “from heaven” was if God was the source of the revelation. John did not get the idea on his own, it came “from heaven.” The verse makes the idiom clear: things could be “from heaven,” i.e., from God, or they could be “from men.”

 

God was and is the origin of Jesus Christ. Christ was God’s plan, and God directly fathered Jesus (Heb 1:5) after He made Jesus in the womb of a woman (Gal 4:4) named Mary. The idiom (from Heaven) is the same when used of Jesus. Jesus is “from God,” “from heaven” or “from above” in the sense that God is his Father and thus his origin.

 

John 6:46 – “he hath seen the Father”

 

John 6:46

The key to understanding John 6:46 is knowing that the phrase “seen the Father” does not refer to seeing with the eye, but to “knowing the Father.” Jesus knew God because God revealed Himself more clearly to Jesus than to anyone else. Jesus made this clear in other teachings, saying, “For the Father loves the Son and shows him all he does…” (John 5:20 NIV).

 

In both Hebrew (H7200) and Greek (G3708) the words translated “see” also mean “to discern, to perceive.” The Hebrew word ra’a is used of both seeing with the eyes and knowing something, or perceiving it (Gen. 16:4; Exod. 32:1; Num. 20:29). Similarly, the Greek word horao, translated “see” in John 1:18, 6:46; and 3 John 1:11, can mean “to see with the eyes” or “to see with the mind, to perceive, know.” Even in English, one of the definitions for “see” is “to know or understand.” For example, when two people are discussing something, one might say to the other, “I see what you mean.”

 

The usage of “see” as it pertains to knowing is found in many places in the New Testament. For example, Jesus said to Philip, “…Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father…” (John 14:9). Here again the word “see” is used to indicate knowing. Anyone who knew Christ (not just those who “saw” him) would know the Father. In fact, Christ had made that clear two verses earlier when he said to Philip, “If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him” (John 14:7). In this verse Jesus says that those who know him have “seen” the Father.

 

One of the verses that uses the word “seen” in the sense of “known” is (John 1:18 GW).

 

The phrase “seen God” is parallel to the phrase “has made Him known,” and both phrases refer to knowing God. No man fully knew God, but Jesus made Him known. Throughout the Old Testament, what people knew about God was very limited. In fact, 2 Corinthians 3:13-16 refers to the fact that even today, the Jews who reject Christ have a veil over their hearts. The full knowledge, the “truth” about God, came through Jesus Christ (John 1:17). He was the one who “saw” (fully understood) God, and then he taught others—which is what John 1:18 says. Before Jesus Christ came, no one really knew God as He truly is, a loving heavenly Father, but Jesus Christ “saw” (knew) God intimately, because the Father revealed Himself clearly to him.

 

See also: (If No Man Has Seen God, Do The Scriptures Contradict?)

 

 

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John 6:62 – “where he was before”

 

This verse (John 6:62) is referring to the resurrection of Christ, not the ascension of Christ up to Heaven.

 

The translators have chosen to translate the Greek word anabaino (G305) as “ascend up” instead of “arise.” As a result many people believed it referred to Christ’s ascension from earth as recorded in Acts 1:9, however Acts 1:9 does not use this word.

 

Jesus was speaking about being the bread from heaven and giving life via his resurrection. Jesus was teaching the Jews of his yet FUTURE death and resurrection. This would show that he had conquered death and was ALIVE forever more and that he was indeed the SON of Almighty God.

 

Remember many Jewish leaders did not believe in the resurrection at that time (Mat 22:23).

In addition, Jesus said “I will raise him up [any believer] at the last day” (John 6:39, 40, 44).

 

Of course Jesus had also been speaking of the resurrection (the last day) in addressing their concern about eating His Flesh and drinking His Blood to receive this eternal life (John 6:27-28, 54). When they took offense (John 6:60-61) Jesus exposed their unbelief, by asking them if they would also be offended if they saw him “arise” (from the dead,  resurrected) and be where he was before, i.e., alive and on the earth. (1Cor 15:3-8, John 6:62, 66)

 

 

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John 8:23, John 15:19, John 17:14, John 17:16 – “not of this world”

(Ref: I Am From Above, I Am Not Of This World)

John 8:58 – Before Abraham Was I Am

(See: Before Abraham Was I Am – John 8:58)

John 14:7 – …from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.

 

Many of us who carry the banner of being Apostolic/Oneness have often used John 14:7-9 to support the teaching that the man Jesus Christ was actually proclaiming himself to be God the Father as well as being the Son of God. Having been brought up in an Apostolic home I am familiar with this teaching. I consider myself Apostolic, in that I follow and believe the teachings of Jesus Christ and the doctrine taught by his disciples the Apostles. However, in my reading and study of the scriptures this is not what John 14:7 nor John 14:9 says or implies.

 

Let’s take a careful look at each line.

 

 

(John 14:7)

If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.

 

Note:

There are three statements made within this first passage alone, each one makes it abundantly clear that Jesus is referencing someone else.

 

First, Jesus’ reference to my Father is in reference to someone other than himself.

Second, it says “henceforth you know him” (it doesn’t say “henceforth ye know me“),

Third, it ends by saying “and have seen him” (it doesn’t say “and you see me” – present tense)

 

 

 

 

(John 14:8)

Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.

Note:

Many ignore the significance of this passage also. Philip certainly didn’t have the impression that Jesus was proclaiming himself to be God the Father, because he asked Jesus to show Him the Father.

The request was actually a challenge to Jesus to produce some visible evidence (shew us that it sufficeth us), to show them God.

 

 

 

 

(John 14:9)

Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?

 

Note:

Even in this particular passage we can ascertain that Thomas and Philip had been with Jesus a long time (as his disciples/students) and Jesus was challenging their recall of His teachings. Like many of us, they apparently forgot the fact that Jesus (Yahshua) in his response in John 14:7-9 was speaking about the “Authority He had been given from God” to speak for God (John 12:49-50) (See also: Is God And Jesus The Same Person?)

 

 

There are at least 2 questions we should be able to answer, concerning these passages:

 

 

Question #1.

Have you ever wonder why Jesus DID NOT say “I am the Father?”

 

Jesus was not teaching in parables in his response to Philip. If Jesus wanted his disciples to believe he was God the Father, He could have stated, “I am the Father, I am standing right here before you.” But the fact is, Jesus never once claimed to be God during His lifetime (on Earth or in Heaven). Jesus is not a liar, pretender or a fake. Jesus never said he was God, he never pretended to be God and he never tried to make anyone believe it either.

 

So when we look at the teachings of the men Jesus personally selected and taught (the Apostles) and what they in turn taught others it becomes impossible to deny that what many churches are teaching today is not the same. These men actually knew Jesus personally, they followed him throughout his ministry, they ate with him, watched his life and his ministry; I believe they were more of an authority on the teachings of Jesus than any of us especially when they received it directly from Jesus Christ. None of these men, those that were closest to Jesus, believed, preached or taught anyone that Jesus was God the Father. These men are the men Jesus trusted to carry his gospel into the entire world, in the New Testament writings these men, especially Paul, clearly delineate between God and Jesus. They are not confused, they are not contradicting the teachings of Jesus Christ, they are carrying the message they were given without adding to or taking away from the truth they were handed.

Many pastors today preach with great vigor and with great conviction but their message (if preaching Jesus to be God the Father) is not one taught by any of the Apostles, those men that knew Jesus well enough to count it an honor to die for his message. I certainly believe the Apostles will be caught up in the air to be with Christ when Christ returns, not only for the life they lived but also for believing Jesus to be the Son of God as they taught. Not one of these men taught Jesus was God the Father. In fact here is what the record declares  (John 6:69 – “And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.”)

 

Surprisingly, people even manage to ignore the proceeding passage that follows (John 14:7-9) and clarifies Jesus statement.

 

 

(John14:10)

I SPEAK NOT OF MYSELF

 

“….the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works…..”

 

Jesus was clearing speaking as He was moved by the Spirit of God (the Holy Spirit that dwelt within)

 

Note: God gave Jesus the commands (instructions) as what He should say and do.

John 12:49  For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.

John 12:50  And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.

 

All of the Bible passages have to be read and understood in such a way that they are both sound in doctrine and harmonize without contradicting God’s Word given us through Christ (Heb 1:1-5)

(See also:  Frequently asked Questions About Creation ).

 

 

 

 

Question #2.

Why would you have to believe that Jesus is God in order to obtain God’s Plan of Salvation?

 

Why should anyone be required to believe Jesus is God (or teach others the same) in order for man to obtain God’s Plan of Salvation, when the Word of God sets forth no such terms or conditions as requirements?

 

Why should we teach others to believe some non-biblical man-made criteria (Jesus is God the Father) then present it through our preaching as if it is true and necessary for God’s plan of Salvation?

 

Gal 1:8  But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.

 

The Word of God clearly says that we are to BELIEVE Jesus is the SON OF GOD, just as the Bible says? (John 3:16, 6:40; 1 John 4:14-15, 5:5, 5:10)

 

 

 

 

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John 14:9 He That Hath Seen Me Hath Seen The Father

 

Reference The Following Links:

If No Man Has Seen God, Do The Scriptures Contradict? ,

 2 Corinthians 5:19 God Was In Christ ,

 1 Timothy 3:16 God Was Manifest In The Flesh ,

John 14:10-11

 

 

John 14:10-11 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me?

 

Does John (14:10-11) Indicate Incarnation?

 

(John 14:10-11) does NOT indicate incarnation but unification. This passage denotes two spirits (“I am in the Father” or “the Father in Me”) agreeing as one (on one accord).

When used in the sense of “in God,” or “in Christ,” the word “in” refers to a close communiona tight fellowship. This manner of speaking was part of the language usage of that day, (John 10:37-38, 17:21, 23, 26)  (See also: In, In God, In Whom)

(2 Corinthians 5:17) – Therefore if any man be “in” Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new. Yet we all know that this verse is not literal; man is not literally inside another individual, this is figuratively spoken. Man is also not a new physical being but a changed spiritual being. Man’s old way of thinking, living and behaving die (but not literally, they change) and his thoughts, actions, and life become new (different).

In the same way, when Jesus Christ submitted his human will to God, God’s will was then “in” him; Jesus laid aside his human will in order to be united to God’s perfect will. “Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.” (Luke 22:42)

The spirit of God was in Christ in the same way God’s spirit is in those who serve him today. Having the “in”-dwelling of God’s spirit does not make us God/gods.

When we are doing God’s will, following his leading we are “one” with God. Thus we, I and my father (spiritually), are indeed one (unified).  We are also one with Christ (you and I).

Note: The Bible is full of figurtive speech, just as in contrast with the Biblical phrase to be “cut off ” (found 194 times in KJV) which does not always indicate the literal “physical” act of cutting (Numbers 19:13; Proverbs 2:22; Jeremiah 7:28), but that of a separation (as in discontinuing a relationship, fellowship, etc..).

 

 

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John 17:5 – With The Glory Which I Had With Thee Before The World Was

 

Q. If Jesus did not exists as God, or as God the Son, how do we explain John 17:5?

 

This is a good question and there is a good reason why many questions exist surrounding this passage in John.

Most Trinitarians have transliterated the sentence structure of John 17:5 as if Jesus existed with God literally “before the world was”, which is not true.

 

There are Five Points that are vitally important in understanding this particular passage (John 17:5).

 

 

Point #1 : You Must First Understand The Translation History Of The Bible

Ref (Link: The Translation History Of The Bible )

 

 

Point #2 : God Cannot Lie!

There are two important rules when dealing with God:  Rule Number One, God cannot lie.  Rule Number Two: If you think He did, refer to rule number one.

 

 

Point #3 : There Are No Other Gods

Isaiah 45:5-6 – I am the Lord, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me: 6 That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am the Lord, and there is none else.

 

 

Point #4 : There is Only One Creator

There is one Creator and that Creator is God. Every other being comes under the category of “creature” or “creation.”

 

God Had No Intermediary

One of the attributes that distinguishes God as God is the fact that he alone is the creator of all things. Not only did God alone create all things; God alone was not created.

The Bible makes it abundantly clear that God had no intermediary or co-creator along side him when he created the heavens and the earth:

(Isaiah 44:24) – Thus saith the LORD(H3068), thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD(H3068) that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;

This means that nothing was created through or by God’s Son (Jesus) or through any other means other than God (Jehovah) himself. (Isaiah 45:12, 48:13; See also: The Name Of God)

 

 

This is Very Important!

♦ Jesus never, not once, claimed to have created anyone or anything. This is an undisputed fact!

♦ The problem however, as you will soon see, stems from the various publishers who determined how the “original” Hebrew and Greek texts would be translated, thereby controlling what wording would or would not be contained in their biblical publications; that which we call the Holy Bible. That is the major reason why various discrepancies seem to appear within the Bible as written. Scriptures should be in harmony, not contradict each other. As we noted earlier (See: What We Believe):

 

 

Point #5 : The Translation Should Harmonize, Not Contradict

We believe that the original manuscripts were the dictates of “one directing Mind” (God), (2 Peter 1:21).

We do NOT consider the various translations as the Word of God (just the original manuscripts), but that these translations from the original manuscripts have been born out of need for the Word of God to be transmitted to men of different races and languages.

We do NOT claim that these translations are without error; for the translations are the works of mortal men who have made no claims that their works are the products of the inspiration of God or the assistance of the Holy Spirit.

 

Many incorrectly teach that John 17:5 is confirmation that Jesus existed as a self-conscious person prior to the creation of the world.

Many of us who profess to be Oneness, had often incorrectly taught that this was Jesus’ place of honor as God “before” he came to this earth as a man, (then in essence God/Jesus pretended to be His own Son – (Clearly there is no sound biblical doctrine with this line of reasoning)

And verse five also cannot be interpreted to mean Jesus was “God the Son” experiencing glory with “God the Father” in a pre-incarnate existence “before the world” existed, or we make the Bible and God a LIAR (Ref: Points #2, #3)

 

If you do chose to accept the KJ translated version, it must be with the understanding that your interpretation MUST be in line with what GOD SAID and remain in harmony with any companion scriptures on the subject matter at hand.

 

Therefore and according to scripture:

♦ Jesus was only glorified when God raised him from the dead. So we know that Jesus was not yet glorified when he was here praying in John 17:5. Because of John 7:39

John 7:39  (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

 

♦ Similarly, Paul speaks about something given to us before the creation of the world. However that reality only was manifested in our time and space at the appearing of Jesus our Savior.

2 Tim 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began.

 

♦ Similarly, Jesus was the human Lamb slain from the foundation of the world (Rev 13:8) and this human Lamb was foreknown before the foundation of the world (1 Peter 1:20). Although he himself was not yet glorified, that glory was given by the Father to his human son before the foundation of the world. God the Father glorified Jesus when He raised him from the dead. Jesus is saying that his glorification was a done deal before creation because God the Father, in His love for his human son Jesus, had purposed it to occur.

 

Translation Issue

The translation used by many (Oneness & Trinitarians) distorts what Jesus said. The Greek is as follows:

και νυν δοξασον με συ πατερ παρα σεαυτω τη δοξη η ειχον προ του τον κοσμον ειναι παρα σοι

 

The concept of being alongside the Father is mentioned twice in this verse.

και νυν δοξασον με συ πατερ παρα σεαυτω τη δοξη η ειχον προ του τον κοσμον ειναι παρα σοι

 

 

NOTE: The problem with the translation of John 17:5 is that some publishers arbitrarily take the concept of being alongside the Father found at the end of this statement and attaches it to what Jesus “had before the world was.”

 

The word ειναι (G1511) is translated as “was” instead of “to be” and is taken to describe the state of the world which the grammar does not require. This verb is an infinitive which means “to be.” In most bibles (which are predominatly Trinitarian structured translations) the words παρα σοι (with (G3844) thee) are essentially divorced from the word ειναι (to be) as if the latter has nothing to do with the former. This makes it appear that Jesus was having glory alongside the Father before the world was.

 

To the contrary, Jesus is saying that he had something before the world and that something was to be glorified alongside the Father in the future. In other words, God had predestined this to occur.

In my studies, the best translation that I personally have been able to find for this one specific passage, and remains in harmony with the original scriptures, is taken from (The Book Of Yahweh, pg. 834) which reads as follows:
 

5.  And now Father, glorify Me beside Your
Own Self, with the glory which I am to have with
You before the world to come.

 

NOTE: The same concept can also be found in Ephesians 1:4.

God also chose Christians before the foundation of the world TO BE (ειναι – the same infinitive) holy and blameless.
 

 

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John 20:28 – My Lord and my God

“My Lord and my God

 

The phrase “My Lord and my God” is one many misinterpret to be indicating something that it isn’t. Theologians have said, The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus God: “And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God” –  John 20:28.  When we intentionally isolate this one verse from its entire passage of scriptures (John chapter 20) , it’s done so as to present it incorrectly or out of context. We can only speculate as to why Thomas said what he said, but being dubbed “doubting” Thomas it is understandable that his statement was made in a moment of shock/disbelief (Jesus appearing out of nowhere), similar to someone saying “Oh my God” where did you come from? (even though you are not God).

 

Nonetheless, even those who do attempt to present doubting Thomas’ words out of context (My Lord and my God) they cannot honestly claim that the apostle John believed Jesus was God. When you continue reading  the rest of his passage (John 20:30-31) it is clear from the authors’ writing (the Apostle John who was also present when this all took place), “these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God”, it was NOT written so you would believe Jesus was God.

 

John 20:27-31 –Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. 28And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. 29Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed. 30And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: 31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. 

 

 

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Acts 9:4-5 – “….., and heard a voice saying …..I am Jesus whom thou persecutest”

 

 Who Spoke To Paul?

 

Many of us have been taught that this passage of scripture in particular (Acts 9:4-5) is evidence that the Lord “God” spoke his name to Paul.

It is understandable why so many of us start out drawing this “incorrect” conclusion (Either we were taught to believe that from someone whom you studied under ; i.e., a Pastor, minister, church, etc… or possibly you read it from some other source, web, book, radio, tv, etc….)
Unfortunately, you did not ascertain this conclusion from reading it in the Bible anywhere, (or at least it is not part of this passage in particular)

First, nowhere does this passage say anything about God. This is an incorrect, yet understandable, conclusion (actually it is an assumption) that is often drawn from several factors.

1.  The use of the word “heaven”: This however should not seem that strange considering Jesus had just recently been resurrected from the dead by God and ascended up to Heaven to be with God (Acts 4:10, Acts 17:30-31, 1 Timothy 2:5; Hebrews 9:24, 10:12). As Jesus was then, Jesus yet remains at the right hand of God up in heaven (Hebrews 9:24, Acts 7:55-56; Romans 8:34; Ephesians 1:20; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:3, Hebrews 8:1, Hebrews 10:12, Hebrews 12:2; 1 Peter 3:22) (See also: (Jesus Then And Now))

2.  The use of the word “Lord” The Word Lord is used in three manners so understanding what this word means is vital to correctly understanding this passage (Ref. Are There Two Lords? Prove It! (Jude 1:4))

3.  He “heard a voice speaking” Paul did not see Jesus, nor did Paul ever see God literally in person (John 5:37, 1John 4:12). Jesus did not “appear” out of nowhere or materialize himself before Paul. Jesus was speaking from heaven (the sky above – we cannot actually see Heaven itself). This is similar to what occurred when God spoke out from Heaven concerning Jesus (2 Peter 1:17)

 

What We Can Prove

 

Paul understood this voice of Jesus to be that of “the “Son of God”

 

“Jesus” spoke to Paul, and we also know that Jesus is the “Son of” God,

Note: (This title “son of God” is with the understanding that this is a relationship terminology and Jesus is not the “literal” (or biological – for lack of better wording) offspring of God, thus making the existence of two Gods – which clearly would contradict all of the scriptures if that were literally taken, or if you try and say God was “pretending to be” or “acting as” his own Son, thus making God both a deceiver and liar)

If you read a little further down (vs 9:17-20) we know that Paul understood this voice of Jesus to be that of “the “Son of God” and not God himself (God the Father)

Acts 9:17-20 (KJV)   “And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house; and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost. 18 And immediately there fell from his eyes as it had been scales: and he received sight forthwith, and arose, and was baptized. 19 And when he had received meat, he was strengthened. Then was Saul certain days with the disciples which were at Damascus. 20 And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God.”

 

 

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Acts 20:28 – Purchased With His Own Blood

 

 

(See: Purchased With His Own Blood (Acts 20:28))

 

 

Romans 5:12 – All Have Sinned

Romans 5:12

 

In order to correctly understand this passage we need to first understand how the Bible is written. (Ref: Biblical Metaphors & Figures Of Speech) In particular you need to understand what a hyperble is.

 

Hyperbole – an exaggeration of the size, power, meaning, and so on, of an object or phenomenon in order to emphasize that.

A hyperbole (which is an “exaggeration”,  when more is said than is literally meant to make a point) is another common figure of speech form used in the Bible. We who use the English language are quite familiar with the use of hyperbole, even though we may not be as familiar with the term itself. When a teenager explains to her parent that “everybody” is going to be at the party, does she mean that literally the world’s population of 6.6 billion people will be there? Of course she does not. She is intentionally exaggerating to make a point. When a teacher explains to his class that “everybody” knows who the first president of the United States was, does the teacher believe all toddlers can correctly answer the question? No. Once again, the teacher is simply using a well-understood figure of speech to convey a point.

Examples:

The Bible uses hyperbole on numerous occasions. Take John 4:39 as an example. In this passage, a Samaritan woman spoke of Jesus and said: “He told me all that I ever did” (emp. added). Had Jesus really told that woman everything that she had ever done in her life? No, she was using hyperbole to make her point.

To illustrate further, consider Mark 1:4-5: “John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Then all the land of Judea, and those from Jerusalem, went out to him and were all baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins” (emp. added). Taken literally, these verses would mean that John baptized every single person (man, woman, and child) in all of Judea and Jerusalem. But these verses are not to be taken literally. They are utilizing hyperbole, in which intentional “exaggeration” is employed to explain that John’s baptism was extremely popular.

 

 

To Have Committed Sinned

 

The very first observation that many usually overlook when they cite this passage is the phrase “have sinned”. By itself this word biblically indicates an “act, thought, or way of behaving that has been committed against the law of God. To say that someone has “sinned”  is to say that person already committed an “act, thought, or way of behaving that went against the law of God”. To put it simply it is something in your actions (behavior) that dictates if a sin has been committed. Wow! Let’s prove this truth.

Many clergy try to use Romans 5:12, “all have sinned” to support, what has been coined, the “original sin” or “imputed sin” theory presumed to be placed on all mankind after Adam disobeyed God. Unfortunately, Adam and Eve had this “sinful nature” (as does all of mankind) from the beginning of their creation (their ability to disobey God – a product of “free will”). (See: 9. What Is The Difference Between Sin, Sinful Nature & Sinful Flesh?)

A few verses later in Romans 5:19 Paul now states “For as by one man’s disobedience many (not all) were made sinners”. Here Paul says “many” were made sinners, in contrast to “all”, so how do we determine Paul’s intent? 

If you just indiscriminately claim that this statement applies to “everyone” (all of mankind) in the literal sense it must also apply to Jesus because Jesus was also a “man”, declared so by his own indisputable testimony (John 8:40), (Ref: John 7:42; Romans 1:3-4; 2 Timothy 2:8)  (See also:  Christ and His Humanity). Holding that position would clearly contradict other scriptures that Jesus did not commit sin (1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5).

 

Now we have this seemingly potential dilemma as to the grammatical correctness or intent of the passage.

Thus we have a potential debate with the above scripture Romans 5:12 and the following verses:

 

(Ezekiel 18:20) – “The child does not bear the iniquity of the father, but the wickedness of the wicked is upon himself.”

(2 Corinthians 5:10) – “Each one will be judged according to what he has done in the body, good or bad.” If this verse is true then this means no one will be condemned for Adam’s sin, except Adam!

(Luke 12: 47-48) – “And that servant, which knew his lord’s will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes.  48But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.”

(Romans 5:13-14) – “For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned

 

I would surmise that there is a close correlation between Ezekiel 18:20 “The child does not bear the iniquity of the Father” and Romans 5: 14 “…even over them that had not sinned

 

We therefore need to explore how theses verses best harmonize without being contradictory.

 

So how would a baby, who has just entered into the world,  ever be given the opportunity to receive salvation if it were to die during it’s infancy? The bible gives no examples of Christian believing infants? (James 4:17 )

Because the bible is written for those who have a level of intelligence or comprehension, when an infant dies each one will be judged according to what they have done ( 2 Corinthians 5:10) so we can conceded that an infant would have done the least wrong or sin in comparison to any adult who dies regardless if the adult became a Christian.

 

 

Are Babies Born With Sin?

So, today we have both death and a sinful nature that was inherited from this one act of disobedience and with age, time and study we learn to discern both good and evil. The question many have regards babies and are babies born with sin.  (Romans 5:12) states “all have sinned.” If All meant ALL (as to include infants) then babies are born with sin. However, if true that would also mean all of mankind are born with sin, even Jesus Christ would not be exempt, he himself  “born” (Matthew 1:16, 2:1; Luke 1:35, 2:11), a “human child” of Mary (Matthew 1:16) and seed of David (John 7:42; Romans 1:3; 2 Timothy 2:8). Yet, the Bible tells us that this man (John 8:40) was without sin (1 Peter 2:22). Is sin actually inherent at the first breath an infant takes into their lungs? Or, does choice play a part;  being a point of entry into each life?

 

Until Adam exercised his choice/free will to disobey God’s commandment there was no sin in his life. Once he disobeyed and his eyes were opened there were other things he came to understand were not as they should be and had to be changed.

 

In Adam’s life sin was nonexistent without that choice. Once that choice was made, then discernment and accountability came into play. When an infant is born they lack the ability to choose anything for themselves, their entire existence depends on the care and nurture of others. It is not until they have the ability to choose to disobey that sin enters the picture. Even then, until they have the ability to discern right from wrong can full accountability come into play?

 

(Luke 12: 47-48 ) – “And that servant, which knew his lord’s will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.”

 

(Hebrews 5:13-14) “For every one that useth milk is unskilful in the word of righteousness: for he is a babe. But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age, even those who by reason of use have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil.”

 

Based on the word of God there are clearly different degrees of understanding and accountability. It is impossible to disobey without a choice. Disobedience comes with a price, but it is impossible to disobey if you have no knowledge that what you are doing is wrong.

 

The basic knowledge of right from wrong starts being learned at a very young age.  How many people reading this know this scenario? “Don’t touch that, it is hot.” followed by a curious child touching the object and learning what both “don’t touch” and “hot” mean. At this point, did the child sin? Until after the lesson of what “don’t touch” and “hot” means the child does not comprehend that touching the object is wrong. It is with this repetitive lesson. “Don’t touch that…” that the child begins to understand this is an order and they are not supposed to disobey. When the child turns to the parent with a knowing look and an ornery grin and touches the object anyway, they have made a choice and they have disobeyed, they are then accountable and pay a consequence with a swat on a diaper padded bottom, or a moment in time out. Was punishment meant to hurt the child or teach them the serious nature of the infraction? Children are taught in degrees. Choice and disobedience also presents itself in degrees.

 

 

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Romans 8:9 “…if any man have not the Spirit of Christ…”

 

The “Spirit of God” and the “Spirit Of Christ”

 

There are often questions concerning this passage of scripture (Romans 8:9) and the wording (as used by KJV and some others) concerning the “Spirit of God” and the “Spirit of Christ“. If we are not careful, and omit reading the entire chapter, it is possible to misinterpret this passage as being in reference to either two members of a Trinity (Trinitarians) or Christ as being the Spirit of Life itself, which is the Spirit (of God). Romans 8:1-11 is speaking about receiving Life from the Spirit, the “Spirit of Life.” It is this life giving Spirit, which comes from God who quickens (G2227) a mortal body (makes alive) and it was this same “Spirit” (of God) that raised Christ up from the dead (Rom 8:11).
 

Rom 8:9 (KJV) But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ,(does not have this Spirit as the Messiah) he is none of his.

 

 

Better Stated

(Ref: The Book of Yahweh) (pg.879) reads as follows;

(8:9) “But you are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if the Spirit of Yahweh truly dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have this Spirit as the Messiah, he is not His; Yahweh’s”

 

 
This is important to understand for when Romans 8:10 speaks of Christ, “if Christ be in you“, it also speaks of the Spirit, “the Spirit is Life, however it is not well worded and may be misinterpreted if you are not well versed in the scripture. The Spirit of Life is in reference to God, it is not in reference to Christ.

Rom 8:10 (KJV) And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

 

 

Better Stated

(Ref: The Book of Yahweh) (pg.879) reads as follows;

(8:10) “And if Messiah is in you, your body is dead because of sin, but the Spirit is alive because of righteousness”

 

 

Note:if Christ be in you“– Is similar to passages like; “Those who have put on Christ” (Rom 13:14, Gal 3:27) or (Eph 4:24, Col 3:10-12) “put on the new man”, etc. – it is speaking of reflecting the will, character, conduct, a life that is patterned of Christ, which is of the righteousness of God himself (Rom 3:22).

 

 

 

Once Christ has become part of our life (because of faithful obedience -Rom 5:19, John 8:29, 12:49-50, 14:31, Acts 5:31-32) we will receive this same salvation (1Peter 1:3-5). A resurrection as Christ received, (verse 5 “Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time“), which Paul points out clearly in verse 11 below.
 

Rom 8:11 But if the Spirit of him (God) that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit (God which is The Spirit of Life) that dwelleth in you.

 

 

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Romans 9:5 – Christ came, who is over all, God blessed forever

 

(Romans 9:5) “Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.”

 

The original (Greek) text had no punctuation indications, as a result the way we  interpret the grammar of this writing  falls into two basic categories:
1. those who view this phrase as to make Christ into God; and

2. those who read this phrase as a eulogy referring to God the Father “God, who is over all, be blessed forever! Amen.” The full version (RSV) below.

 

  • RSV: “to them belong the patriarchs, and of their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God who is over all be blessed forever. Amen.”

 

After doing some extensive research in review and comparing other closely worded verses (Romans 1:25; 2 Corinthians 11:31; 1 Timothy 6:13-16) I am in agreement with the second view, that the evidence supports those that view this as a eulogy to God the Father.

It does not say “Paul recognized the pre-existence of Christ as God the Father himself”.  Roman 9:5 does not prove that Paul ever thought of Christ as God, to the contrary God is spoken of by the Apostle Paul not only as the Father but also the God of our Lord Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3, 17; 3:14; 1 Peter 1:3; 2 John 1:3).

 

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1 Corinthians 8:6 – One Lord Jesus Christ By Whom Are All Things And We By Him

(See:  Frequently asked Questions About Creation )

 

2 Corinthians 5:19 God Was In Christ

 

Strong’s Hebrew and Greek Lexicon

Manifestation: (Or to make manifest) means to make known or to show forth

(Strong’s 5319- to render apparent). From G5318; to render apparent (literally or figuratively):

IN THE BIBLE : The word “manifest” is found used in various forms.

 

There is a big difference between being a manifestation of something (something that was made known) versus being an incarnation of something; something (i.e. an entity, a deity, a spirit, an angel, a god) that is able at will to change its normal physical state of existence and “appear as” something else (i.e. appearing as a human being, a burning bush, a donkey, etc.).  (See: Incarnation vs. Omnipresence)

 

Note: A spirit taking on another form (as someone else or something else) is never going to ever literally be the actual object it is portraying (i.e., a Rock or a person) (See: What Is A Spirit?)

God is called God because he has inherent abilities that nothing or no one (humans) possess. God appearing as a human (or dwelling within another human) is completely different than someone who is “totally human” (according to their definition and their attributes – See: Incarnation vs Indwelling). Humans can not “at will” change our normal physical state of existence and “appear as” something else other than what we are. The best we can do is pretend to be something else.

 

Although an incarnation is a type of manifestation, there is however a significant difference that exist between the two that must be understood. Many things can be considered the manifestation of something or someone. We are the manifestation of Christ, who was the manifestation of God. We who follow Christ are likewise the manifestation of God yet we are not the complete “physical substance” of God literally but rather God is made known  (manifest) through us. We have plenty examples showing the variety of ways the Bible uses this word manifest (Romans 1:19; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Galatians 5:19; 1 Peter 1:20-21; 1 John 3:9-10).

(2 Corinthians 4:10-14)  “Always bearing about in the body the dying of the Lord Jesus, that the life also of Jesus might be made manifest  [but not in person literally] in our body. 11 For we which live are always delivered unto death for Jesus’ sake, that the life also of Jesus might be made manifest [but not in person literally] in our mortal flesh. 12 So then death worketh in us, but life in you. 13  We having the same spirit of faith, according as it is written, I believed, and therefore have I spoken; we also believe, and therefore speak; 14 Knowing that he [God] which raised up the Lord Jesus shall raise up us also by Jesus, and shall present us with you.

 

However if we say God actually incarnated himself and if it were true then by definition, God would not cease being God. The only change would be that of his appearance, God would had became material (visible). God became a visible God, a God that went around literally talking and walking with men in his fleshly state while he retained all of his other Godly attributes, he still had, “all knowledge” and “all power” and therefore by definition he would not be “totally” human.  The church is now forced to make the claim that God was either “playing a role” as Son or “acting as”  a man (neither of which is what the Bible says) or we make Jesus to be a liar.

 

 

 

God Was Revealed

 

(1 Timothy 3:16) – And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest (God was revealed, Not Incarnated ) in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

 

God was manifest in the flesh, not incarnated in the flesh, in other words God made himself evident (his will or Spirit) through the man Jesus Christ. Jesus became a conduit to God through obedience which allowed Jesus to work in direct alignment with God’s will, in his power and with his authority. These were God given attributes that Jesus availed himself to through obedience. God did not become Jesus rather he worked through Jesus (Acts 2:22); Jesus did not become God but allowed God’s Spirit to make God’s will, his word and his plan, flow through his humanity (“the Father that dwelleth in me” – John 14:10) translating the will of God (a Spirit) into the acts/demonstration of Jesus (a man). Because of Jesus Christ’s obedience God’s purpose was exemplified and demonstrated. God’s purpose was fulfilled, man was redeemed.

 

God gave specific criteria for the sacrifice that would satisfy the redemption of man, the humanity of, not the deity of Jesus Christ, satisfied that criteria. If you dilute the humanity of Jesus Christ and his overcoming of his human nature by submitting his flesh to an Almighty God, his example of being a human man with the same challenges and temptations that we face, we lose the significance of the sacrifice. It becomes God circumventing the natural order he created and the criteria he ordained and applying a human tendency of the end justifies the means. If we take away the humanity of Christ, we dilute the sacrifice. Jesus becomes a Man/God that never overcame the same temptations we face as human beings because he would have had the advantage of being God and perfect without ever having had the free will choice to submit his flesh to the cross.

 

God did not choose to be sinless, he was never anything but sinless and cannot sin so that is not unusual, but for a man (Jesus) to choose to be sinless in obedience to his father, unlike Adam who did disobey, that is a phenomenal feat and is what gives a sinful mankind hope.

 

 

The Issue The Church Didn’t Explain To You:

 

Either Jesus COULD sin or Jesus COULD NOT sin; WHICH IS IT?

Note: (Having the “ability” to commit sin (or disobey God) is different than putting that ability you have into practice).

If Jesus was NOT capable of sinning he would indeed be totally GOD; or on the other hand

If Jesus was capable (had the ability) of committing sin he would be human (or not “totally” God), because all “real” humans are capable of committing a sin against (or disobeying) God.

 

It is this aspect of Jesus total obedience to God (John 8:29-30, Romans 5:19) that was remarkable. God’s plan, even before the foundation of the world, was for Jesus to be our savior and redeemer. (1 John 4:14-15; Galatians 4:4-8; 1 Peter 1:19-21)

If Jesus was “totally” God it would be impossible for God to sin because God has no one to whom he must obey, Jesus would have never “truly” overcame the world as our example of being sinless flesh BY SURRENDERED WILL TO ANOTHER.

God’s Spirit (divinity) indwelling the human body of Jesus (humanity) demonstrated two different types of spirits in one body. This is why Jesus said the words he spoke were not his, but that of his Father [God] (John 12:49-50; John 14:24)

 

 

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2 Corinthians 5:21 – To Be Sin For Us, Who Knew No Sin

 

The King James translation of this passage is somewhat confusing which reads as follows:

 

2Cor 5:21  For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

 

This passage is even more confusing because many of us had been taught that “all men” were somehow born into this world with sin in their bodies from birth. We were taught that we all are “born sinners” (which would also include the many infants who died at birth or premature, or accidentally during infancy, mentally disabled, all the many non-English speaking natives, etc..).

 

 

First, there is no such scripture that makes this claim about men “birthed as sinners.” We sin ONLY when we transgress against (disobey) God’s law (1 John 3:4) and that is why the scripture  says;

 

(Psa 119:11) “Thy word have I hid in mine heart, that I might not sin against thee (God).”

 

Where there is no law, sin is not imputed against those individuals (Rom 5:13). In other words you have to be made aware of God’s law in order to “disobey” God’s law, you cannot be disobedient to someone of whom you have no prior knowledge of, otherwise infants and children who died young (those who didn’t even have the capability to speak or mentality to understand) would be facing eternal damnation for not adhering to these types of fictitious, man-made, non-biblical criteriums. (Ref: infant sections on babies: 13. What Is Sin)

 

 

Second, another passage frequently referenced is (Rom 5:12) which says all have sinned but it does NOT say all men are BORN sinners! The Bible doesn’t mention babies needing to be baptized, repent of their sins, confess Jesus or even worship God during this stage of their growth and development. If Jesus was indeed truly 100% human (not part human) and the true seed of David as the Bible declares then his “birth” experience is the same as any other infant who enters into the world by birth of a woman. Jesus was sinless because he committed no sin, it had nothing to do with the manner of His birth into the world.

 

 

Note: There are two infants whom the Bible clearly reflect this to be the case, the first was John (Luke 1:13-15).

 

Luke 1:13  But the angel said unto him, Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John.
Luke 1:14  And thou shalt have joy and gladness; and many shall rejoice at his birth.
Luke 1:15  For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother’s womb.

 

We know that God (God’s Spirit / the Holy Ghost – 1 Cor 3:16, 6:19) can indwell our human bodies, even the bodies of infants, which clearly indicates that there was/is no requirement of repentance, water baptism or speaking in tongues at this stage of life. This then presents a serious problem for those trying to explain John’s birth, if all infants are “alleged” to be sinners at birth. (Was John a sinner born with the Holy Ghost? )

And as surprising as it may seem to some, the phrase that “the Holy Ghost won’t dwell in an unclean temple” is not actually in the Bible, it is however implied, Paul said, “If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.” (1 Cor 3:17)

 

 

And finally, we have the record of this child Jesus (Yahshua), the seed of David, the son of Mary (Luke 1:31-32, 35, 1 Peter 2:21-22).

 

1Peter 2:21  For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:
1Peter 2:22  Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:

 

This writing in 1 Peter indicates that we are able to live a sin free life patterned after Christ. It doesn’t say Jesus was born without sin, or that Jesus could not sin, but who DID NO sin!!! How did Jesus accomplish this feat, he “.. committed himself to him (God) that judgeth righteously:” and because God was with Christ (Acts 10:38, 1 Peter 2:23), and if we have God in our lives and are obedient to His will (Acts 5:32, 1 Thessalonians 4:8) we too will be sinless.

 

 

Third, some present Psa 51:5 “Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.”

Here again, the translated meaning is the same as the writer saying “I was born into a sinful world” (iniquity, or sin, was “in” the world) which was true then and remains true yet today. (Ref: 8. What Is The Difference Between Sin, Sinful Nature & Sinful Flesh?)

 

God had “purposed” (made G4160) Christ to be a sin offering for us (1 John 4:10-14, 1 Peter 1:20, Rev 13:8). Naturally, any sacrificial offering presented to God had to be the “best” offering man had to offer God for any atonement. Christ took it upon himself to fulfill God’s plan (Luke 22:42, John 8:29), God did not force Christ to obey Him (John 8:26, 28).

 

Note: If Christ actually existed up in Heaven, with the angels (as a living being, or as God) prior his human birth, Jesus would be something other than a real human (he would be an alien). Furthermore, any human offspring could not possibly exist prior to the existence of its parents (King David, Mary or God, the Father of Jesus) existed.

The only way you can PRE-exist, your actual existence is in the thought of someone else (God)!

 

 

Conclusion:

There are at least two other translations that better convey what this particular passage is actually speaking about:

 

(2Cor 5:21 NLT)  “For God made Christ, who never sinned, to be the offering for our sin, so that we could be made right with God through Christ.”

 

and from the Book of Yahweh, (pg. 904) reads as follows:

 

21 For Yahweh made Him, Who knew no sin, to be a sin offering for us, that we might become the righteousness of Yahweh, through Him.

 

 

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Ephesians: Chapter 1 [the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ]

 

The Father and Christ

 

Ephesians 1:2 “Grace be to you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ.”

Comment: [This reads from two personages (Spiritual individuals), not from one? We have “One God and Father of all, who is above all….” (Ephesians 4:6) and another who is also called “Lord”— Jesus Christ (Jude 1:4; Acts 2:36). God the Father is also the God of Jesus: “I ascend unto my God, and unto your God,” (John 20:17). God the Father of Christ is spoken of as our Father, which is by adoption (Galatians 4:4-7)]

 

Ephesians 1:3 “the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.”

Comment: [Again, God the Father is the God of Jesus Christ; that is clear; yet Jesus is also called “Lord,” which sometimes can also be a title of God.

 

Ephesians 1:17 “That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory.”

Comment: [Again, the only way this makes sense is if there are two beings—one is God the Father, and the other is the Lord Jesus Christ.]

 

Ephesians 1:20 “Which he [God the Father] wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places,”

Comment: [This would be hard to do if God and Christ were only one being, but we know it’s referring to two—God and his Son Jesus Christ],

“and hath put all things under his [Christ’s] feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church,”

[in other words, there is a way in which Christ is “the head” or the governor or the one in charge—and not the Father—and that is, to the church [he, Christ] is the highest authority. And it pleases the Father that it is so; there are many examples of this in the scriptures—“The Father judges no man, but has put all judgment into the hand of the Son”; or, “All power is give unto me in heaven and on earth.” There are others, but again, this would make no sense whatsoever unless there were two Lords in heaven, one the Father, God over all, and the other the Son, the Redeemer or Savior, the Lord under His direction who administers salvation to His Father’s children.]

 

Christ’s resurrection is called a begetting, or the first begotten from the dead, and the regeneration of men is signified by a resurrection from the dead; as Christ’s body was really dead, lifeless, and without motion, prior to his resurrection, so men, previous to conversion, are dead in trespasses and sins, and are destitute of spiritual life and motion; and as Christ’s human nature could not help itself, could not raise itself, so neither can dead sinners convert themselves, or bring themselves out of that state and condition, in which they are by nature; and as the resurrection of Christ was the pure work of God, and a display of his almighty power, so the work of faith, of grace and conversion, is the entire work of God, which is begun, carried on, and finished wholly by his power; and as Christ’s resurrection was in order to the glorification of God, so is the regeneration and conversion of men, in order to their enjoyment of the heavenly inheritance, as follows:

 

and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places; which is expressive of the great honor conferred upon Christ, such as never was given to any of the angels; it shows that he has done his work on earth with acceptance and therefore is set down at his Father’s right hand, where he enjoys rest and ease from his labors, and is out of the reach of every enemy; will never die again, but live forever, to intercede for his people, to assist and protect them, and bring them where he is; and in whom, as their head and representative, they are already set down in the same heavenly places.

 

 

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Ephesians 3:9 – Who Created All Things By Jesus Christ

(See:  Frequently asked Questions About Creation )

 

Philippians 2:6 – In The Form Of God

(See: In The Form Of God (Philippians 2:6))
 

Colossians 1:15-20 – Image of the Invisible God & The Firstborn

 

Colossians 1:15-20

 

(15)  Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

 

We should first note that “God“, in the phrase “image of the invisible God”, is always the God and Father of Jesus (2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3, 17; 3:14; 1 Peter 1:3; 2 John 1:3).

 

 

What (Verse 15)  is telling us:

Jesus (Yahshua) is the image of the invisible father, the firstborn of all that God (Yahweh) is creating.

 

 

 

Note:

#1 (Understanding the “Image” of the “Invisible”)

 

  • Many point to Colossians 1:15  (“Who is the image of the invisible God”) in support of this incarnation claim. Now, if something is truly invisible, the only way you can be the image of anything invisible is figuratively speaking, by reflecting its character, not its physical make-up.
  • If one thing is the “image” of another thing, then the image and the original” are not the same thing. When you look at someone standing in front of a mirror you see a reflection of their image. The Father is called “God” in many verses, and that is why there is no verse that calls the Father the image of God.
  • Just as Jesus is called the image of God, we also are called the image of God. (1 Corinthians 11:7) says, “A man ought not to cover his head, since he is the image and glory of God.”

 

Words in the Bible must be read and understood in their common or ordinary meaning unless good reason can be given to alter that meaning. In this case, the common meaning of “image” is “likeness” or “resemblance,” and it is used that way every time in the New Testament.

 

 

 

 

#2 (Understanding the “firstborn” of every “Creature”)

 

In the Bible the word “firstborn” is always used as either being the firstborn offspring of a father (as in Genesis 25:13) or as part of a group being spoken of (as in Exodus 11:5).

1) A “birth” reflects a life has been delivered into the world (brought forth into existence);

2) A “creature” reflects a type of species, and all creatures (species) were created by God (Yahweh) (Isaiah 44:24).

Jesus came into existence through the creative act of God (1 Ch 17:11-13; Acts 13:33; Heb 1:5), yet Jesus was certainly not the first living creature God created.

 

How can this statement be true?

As it pertains to his “birth” we know that this passage is also not speaking of Jesus’ first birth, his human birth at Bethlehem. It is speaking after He was physically born of the virgin Mary—because many were born (of human birth) before Jesus.

In Luke 3:38, we find a lineage of Christ that traces him back to Adam. Here we have it stated that Adam was the Son of God. Knowing that Adam was the first created of the physical race.

Adam was considered a son of God, because he had no natural father, Jesus is likewise considered the Son of God, for he also had no natural father.

 

Jesus The Firstborn of Those Who Will Be Born Again

We read in Psalms 89:27 that GOD would make him (Jesus) his firstborn. The key word in this reference is the use of the word “make”, that GOD would make him his firstborn. By his natural birth, Jesus was not the “firstborn” of all of God’s creatures.

In 1 Corinthians 15:45, we have Jesus referred to as the “last Adam.” As the first Adam is the head (beginning) of a race of people, so is the last Adam the head (beginning) of a race or family. Because of his obedience to the Father’s commands (John 8:29, Romans 5:19) those related to the last Adam (Jesus) are related to life and eternal blessings as is Christ (1 Corinthians 15:22, Php 3:21)

This is why the dialogue with Nicodemus was so important (John 3:3-6). We must be born again in the same manner as Christ. When we are given this new life, it is the same new birth/born again experience Jesus speaks of.

(Rom. 8:28-29) “And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose. For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.”

Since Jesus is the firstborn of many brethren, these many brethren will be born having the same kind of birth experience as Christ.

The Bible says we will one day be like Christ (not like God) when he appears (1 John 3:2, Col 3:4, Heb 9:28, Php 3:21) – and joint heirs with Christ (Romans 8:17).

In order to be like Christ we must all be born again, as was Christ. Our flesh body must first somehow DIE or, as we know it, cease from existing as a blood functioning/breathing human being. Only then could man be literally born again (given new life)!

 

*Note:

This Experience is obtained at the Resurrection, Jesus obtained it and so shall we!

 

Yes, Jesus was also born again (given new life) — but this time born of God by the resurrection from the dead.

(Romans 1:3-4) “Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed (born) of David according to the flesh [His human birth of Mary — making Him the Son of man]; and declared (confirmed) to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness (God), by the resurrection from the dead.”

(1 Peter 1:3)  Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,

 

Yes, some will still be alive when Christ returns, during what we call the Rapture, and they too will be caught up to meet Christ in the air (1Th 4:16-17). Either way the old body of flesh will die (Jas 2:26) and will be changed or given new bodies (1 Cor 15:52-53).

 

 

(Ref: What Does it Mean To Be Born Again?Frequently asked Questions About Salvation and Heaven )

 

 

 

 

 

(16)  For by him were all things created, …. all things were created by him, and for him:

 

 

What (Verse 16)  is telling us:

because before him all things were created….. on account of him and for him

 

 

Note:

#1 (The Greek Words “Dia” & “En”)

In order to truly validate and understand this passage, you first have to understand two Greek words “Dia” and “En”. This important topic is covered in detail, Ref: (Who Is The Creator, God or Jesus?Frequently asked Questions About Creation )

 

 

This is why:

We do NOT consider the various translations as the Word of God (just the original manuscripts), but that these translations from the original manuscripts have been born out of need for the Word of God to be transmitted to men of different races and languages.

We do NOT claim that these translations are without error; for the translations are the works of mortal men who have made no claims that their works are the products of the inspiration of God or the assistance of the Holy Spirit.

 

The best transliteration of this particular passage (Colossians chp1) that I have been able to find most in-line and in harmony with that of the apostles belief, teachings and understanding as contained in their “original writings” is given in:

 

The Book of Yahweh which reads as follows:

16  Because (hoti- G3754) before (en- G1722) Him  all  things  were created  that  are  in  heaven,  and  that  are  in  earth, visible  and  invisible,  whether  thrones,  or  rulerships,  or  principalities,  or powers;  all  things were  created  on  account  of (because of) (dia- G1223) Him,  and  for  Him.

 

 

 

 

 

(17)  And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. (KJV)

 

What (Verse 17)  is telling us:

And He (Jesus) is above……And all the things have been placed together under him.

 

 

Note:

The phrase in verse 17 that “he is before all things” has been used to try to prove that Jesus existed before everything else. However, the word “before” (G4253 – pro) can refer to time, place or position (i.e., superiority). The point of the passage here is to show that Christ is above or “superior to” all things, and the following passages reflect his superiority (words such as the fulness, the head, the beginning, before).

 

This passage aligns with what vs 18 signifies, Jesus is indeed (above us, superior to, the head) of the church.

18  And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.

 

This is confirmed in the Corinthians writings:

1 Corinthians 15:27-28 (NIV)

(NIV) 27  For he (God) hath put all things under his (Jesus) feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. (NIV – For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.)
28  And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

 

 

 

 

(19)  For it pleased the Father (God) that in him (Jesus) should all fulness (completion) dwell;

 

(See also: God Was In Christ)

 

 

 

 

(20)  And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him (Jesus) to reconcile all things unto himself; by him (Jesus), I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.

 

 

What (Verse 20)  is telling us:

And, through Jesus (Yahshua), to reconcile all things to Himself God (Yahweh), having made peace through his blood on the cross, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.

 

 

 

 

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Colossians 1:16 – For By Him Were All Things Created

(See:  Frequently asked Questions About Creation )

 

1 Timothy 1:17 – The King Eternal, Immortal, Invisible, The One Wise God

 

“Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the one wise God, be honor and glory for ever and ever. Amen

(1 Timothy 1:17).

 

Some try to argue that this passage references Jesus as God. It does not. Jesus was not invisible, he was seen by thousands. He is however “king of kings” (Revelation 19:16) and “prince of the kings of the earth” (Revelation 1:5), but his God and Father is “the king of heaven” (Daniel 4:37; Psalm 48:2; Matthew 5:35; Luke 10:21; Acts 17:24). Paul makes it clear at the beginning of his letter acknowledging both God and Jesus (1 Timothy 1:1-2)

 

 

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1Timothy 3:16 God Was Manifest In The Flesh

Strong’s Hebrew and Greek Lexicon

Manifestation: (Or to make manifest) means to make known or to show forth

(Strong’s 5319- to render apparent). From G5318; to render apparent (literally or figuratively):

IN THE BIBLE : The word “manifest” is found used in various forms.

 

There is a big difference between being a manifestation of something (something that was made known) versus being an incarnation of something; something (i.e. an entity, a deity, a spirit, an angel, a god) that is able at will to change its normal physical state of existence and “appear as” something else (i.e. appearing as a human being, a burning bush, a donkey, etc.).  (See: Incarnation vs. Omnipresence)

 

Note: A spirit taking on another form (as someone else or something else) is never going to ever literally be the actual object it is portraying (i.e., a Rock or a person) (See: What Is A Spirit?)

God is called God because he has inherent abilities that nothing or no one (humans) possess. God appearing as a human (or dwelling within another human) is completely different than someone who is “totally human” (according to their definition and their attributes – See: Incarnation vs Indwelling). Humans can not “at will” change our normal physical state of existence and “appear as” something else other than what we are. The best we can do is pretend to be something else.

 

Although an incarnation is a type of manifestation, there is however a significant difference that exist between the two that must be understood. Many things can be considered the manifestation of something or someone. We are the manifestation of Christ, who was the manifestation of God. We who follow Christ are likewise the manifestation of God yet we are not the complete “physical substance” of God literally but rather God is made known  (manifest) through us. We have plenty examples showing the variety of ways the Bible uses this word manifest (Romans 1:19; 1 Corinthians 15:27; Galatians 5:19; 1 Peter 1:20-21; 1 John 3:9-10).

(2 Corinthians 4:10-14)  “Always bearing about in the body the dying of the Lord Jesus, that the life also of Jesus might be made manifest  [but not in person literally] in our body. 11 For we which live are always delivered unto death for Jesus’ sake, that the life also of Jesus might be made manifest [but not in person literally] in our mortal flesh. 12 So then death worketh in us, but life in you. 13  We having the same spirit of faith, according as it is written, I believed, and therefore have I spoken; we also believe, and therefore speak; 14 Knowing that he [God] which raised up the Lord Jesus shall raise up us also by Jesus, and shall present us with you.

 

However if we say God actually incarnated himself and if it were true then by definition, God would not cease being God. The only change would be that of his appearance, God would had became material (visible). God became a visible God, a God that went around literally talking and walking with men in his fleshly state while he retained all of his other Godly attributes, he still had, “all knowledge” and “all power” and therefore by definition he would not be “totally” human.  The church is now forced to make the claim that God was either “playing a role” as Son or “acting as”  a man (neither of which is what the Bible says) or we make Jesus to be a liar.

 

 

 

God Was Revealed

 

(1 Timothy 3:16) – And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest (God was revealed, Not Incarnated ) in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

 

God was manifest in the flesh, not incarnated in the flesh, in other words God made himself evident (his will or Spirit) through the man Jesus Christ. Jesus became a conduit to God through obedience which allowed Jesus to work in direct alignment with God’s will, in his power and with his authority. These were God given attributes that Jesus availed himself to through obedience. God did not become Jesus rather he worked through Jesus (Acts 2:22); Jesus did not become God but allowed God’s Spirit to make God’s will, his word and his plan, flow through his humanity (“the Father that dwelleth in me” – John 14:10) translating the will of God (a Spirit) into the acts/demonstration of Jesus (a man). Because of Jesus Christ’s obedience God’s purpose was exemplified and demonstrated. God’s purpose was fulfilled, man was redeemed.

 

God gave specific criteria for the sacrifice that would satisfy the redemption of man, the humanity of, not the deity of Jesus Christ, satisfied that criteria. If you dilute the humanity of Jesus Christ and his overcoming of his human nature by submitting his flesh to an Almighty God, his example of being a human man with the same challenges and temptations that we face, we lose the significance of the sacrifice. It becomes God circumventing the natural order he created and the criteria he ordained and applying a human tendency of the end justifies the means. If we take away the humanity of Christ, we dilute the sacrifice. Jesus becomes a Man/God that never overcame the same temptations we face as human beings because he would have had the advantage of being God and perfect without ever having had the free will choice to submit his flesh to the cross.

 

God did not choose to be sinless, he was never anything but sinless and cannot sin so that is not unusual, but for a man (Jesus) to choose to be sinless in obedience to his father, unlike Adam who did disobey, that is a phenomenal feat and is what gives a sinful mankind hope.

 

 

The Issue The Church Didn’t Explain To You:

 

Either Jesus COULD sin or Jesus COULD NOT sin; WHICH IS IT?

Note: (Having the “ability” to commit sin (or disobey God) is different than putting that ability you have into practice).

If Jesus was NOT capable of sinning he would indeed be totally GOD; or on the other hand

If Jesus was capable (had the ability) of committing sin he would be human (or not “totally” God), because all “real” humans are capable of committing a sin against (or disobeying) God.

 

It is this aspect of Jesus total obedience to God (John 8:29-30, Romans 5:19) that was remarkable. God’s plan, even before the foundation of the world, was for Jesus to be our savior and redeemer. (1 John 4:14-15; Galatians 4:4-8; 1 Peter 1:19-21)

If Jesus was “totally” God it would be impossible for God to sin because God has no one to whom he must obey, Jesus would have never “truly” overcame the world as our example of being sinless flesh BY SURRENDERED WILL TO ANOTHER.

God’s Spirit (divinity) indwelling the human body of Jesus (humanity) demonstrated two different types of spirits in one body. This is why Jesus said the words he spoke were not his, but that of his Father [God] (John 12:49-50; John 14:24)

 

 

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1 Timothy 6:14-16 – Who is the King of Kings

1 Timothy 6:14-16

That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ: 15 Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; 16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.

 

This is another example of a scripture that is understood based on how it is presented. The original text had no punctuation marks, the way we interpret the grammar of this writing is therefore at the publisher’s discretion as to how the passage is written. Some publishers want to view this text as referring to Christ so it is written as such. There are those however who view this passage as referring to God the Father. In order to believe, beyond a reasonable doubt, that something in the New Testament is true as written, we must see a pattern with minimal contradiction. The NIV Reads:

 

1 Timothy 6:14-16 (NIV)

(14) To keep this command without spot or blame until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ,

(15) which God will bring about in his own time—God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lords,

(16) who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. To him be honor and might forever. Amen.

 

1 Timothy 6:14-16 (ERV)

(14) Do what you were commanded to do without fault or blame until the time when our Lord Jesus Christ comes again.

(15) God will make that happen at the right time. God is the blessed and only Ruler. He is the King of all kings and the Lord of all lords.

(16) God is the only one who never dies. He lives in light so bright that people cannot go near it. No one has ever seen him; no one is able to see him. All honor and power belong to him forever. Amen.
 

 
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Titus 2:13 – The Great God and our Savior Jesus

 

Titus 2:13 (KJV)
13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

 

 

Scholars debate what the exact translation of this passage should be.

Should this verse be understood to say, “the glorious appearing of the great God who is our Saviour Jesus Christ,”

or

should it be understood as saying, “the appearing of the glory of our great God, as well as of our Saviour Jesus Christ?”

 

 

 

Note:

 

The Great God – Could Not Be Speaking Of Jesus

The word “great” is clearly identified as belonging to “God” but there are those who suggest that Jesus is the great God being referred to in this passage.

 

*In the writings of Paul we know that Paul is persistent about this one fact, that “there is but one God, the Father (1 Corinthians 8:6) and he consistently distinguishes the identity of “God” and “Jesus” as being two separate and distinct personages or beings.

 

Jesus himself even makes that distinction very clear when He said, “The Father is greater than I” (John 14.28).  It therefore seems best to take this phrase “the great God” as being in reference to God the Father.”

 

 

The Glory Of…?

Because the Greek structure and style is complex, and in order to help us obtain a better understanding of verse 13, let us begin two verses before.

 

Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,

 

We all know that “grace” did not make some “physical” appearance, but rather the knowledge given us through Christ, who spoke concerning the grace of God and the manifestation of His glory.

 

Likewise, the significance of the “appearing” in verse 13 was in reference to the “glory” that will be displayed. Not the display of God himself but “the glory of both”, the glory of God and the glory of our Saviour Jesus Christ will have been displayed.

This display is spoken of by Jesus in the book of Luke:

 

For whosoever shall be ashamed of me and of my words, of him shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he shall come in his own glory, and in his Father’s, and of the holy angels (Luke 9:26).

 

When Christ returns it will be with his glory and with the glory of his Father (God) and with the glory of the Holy angels.

 

Once we understand Luke 9:26 (….when he returns it will be with his glory as well as with the glory of the Father.) the meaning of the text becomes clearer and fits in perfect harmony with the rest of Scripture.

 

 (See also: Frequently asked Questions About Salvation)

 

 

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Hebrews 1:2 – By Whom Also He Made The Worlds

(See:  Frequently asked Questions About Creation )

Hebrews 1:3 The Express Image

 

Heb 1:3  Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;

 

There are those who say the wording in this passage “the express image of his person” proves Jesus is God. They say “express” means exact copy or precise. 

While the definition is correct, the application is not because there are two ways in which this phrase can be used, it can either be [literal] or [figurative] representation) and both are correct.

 

 

Three Important Facts Ignored:

1.  Even if we take this statement “express image” as meaning an “exact copy” in the literal sense it invalidates the claim that Jesus was God because by its very definition Jesus would be nothing more than an “exact copy of” who God is. Even if Jesus looked like God and God actually looked like the man, Jesus would still be a copy not the original.

2.  Furthermore, when this passage is read in the correct context from which it was taken (Heb 1:1-2) Paul tells us that God delivered his messages, at that time, through His Son (Jesus) therefore Jesus was indeed in an offical representation capacity speaking for God. Paul clearly was not saying that God himself came directly to us in person (Heb 1:1-7).

 

Note:

See also: The Greek Word “Dia” in (2. Who is the Creator, God or Jesus?) to understand the mis-translation found in Heb 1:2 concerning the creation (by or for) whom also he made the worlds;.

 

See also: (Incarnation vs. Omnipresence) (Non-Biblical Concepts) (Incarnation vs Indwelling)

 

 

3.  The Express image did not mean Jesus and God are identical in appearance.

Most scriptures reflect Jesus as standing or sat down at the right hand of God. It is irrelevant whether the “right hand” of God is stated as being figurative or literal, either way it denotes Jesus at a position to someone other than himself.

(Acts 7:55-56; Romans 8:34; Ephesians 1:20; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:3, Hebrews 8:1, Hebrews 10:12, Hebrews 12:2; 1 Peter 3:22)

The point is that these men of God where somehow able to “visibly distinguish” the spiritual personage of Jesus from that of God. They were somehow able to identify Jesus as the one standing on the right hand of God himself. This could not had been accomplished if Jesus and God were actually identical (the express image) spiritual personages in appearance.

 

 

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Hebrews 11:24-26 – Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater ……

Hebrews 11:24-26

 

Heb 11:24  By faith Moses, when he was come to years, refused to be called the son of Pharaoh’s daughter;

Heb 11:25  Choosing rather to suffer affliction with the people of God, than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a season;

Heb 11:26  Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures in Egypt: for he had respect unto the recompence of the reward.

Many have questioned the Greek word here, “Χριστος” (Christ), because they cannot see how Moses would have any knowledge of him. Let’s first keep in mind that this word means “anointed”. It also can be said that it was just as easy for God to reveal Christ to Moses, as it was for him to reveal him to Isaiah, or to the shepherds, or to John Baptist; or to manifest him in the flesh.

It is of him he prophesied in Deut 18:15. The Apostle Paul (whom most accredit the writings of Hebrews) reintroduced the spiritual connection between the Christ and the prophet foretold by Moses (John 5:46-47; Acts 3:18-23, 26; 7:37). Moses looked forward to the “reward” as he states (Hebrews 11:26), just as Abraham rejoiced (John 8:58-59). Furthermore, Paul substantiated that the God was “invisible” (Hebrews 11:27) (Colossians 1:15-20, 1Timothy 1:16-17)
 

 

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Hebrews 1:8 – Thy throne, O God

See: (Hebrews 1:8 – Thy throne, O God)

1 Peter 3:18-20 “..he went and preached unto the spirits in prison..”

 

1 Peter 3:18-20 (KJV)

 

18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:

19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;

20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

 

 

Some think this passage refers to Jesus speaking to human beings in hell after His death on the cross.

Others think it refers to Christ’s spirit speaking in the days of Noah to warn of impending judgment and offer salvation to Noah and his family.

Neither is correct or biblical.

 

Preaching To The Lost Soul Theory

Some believe Jesus descended to hell and preached to lost souls. The words they point to are “in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison.”

 

First, nowhere in the Bible is there any statement that a lost soul who has died can have a second chance in the afterlife (Heb 9:27).

God has provided this earthly life as the place were all human beings determine who to obey and how they plan to spend eternity. That decision is made by each individual based upon personal conduct (Matthew 16:27; John 5:29, Rom 2:6-10, 1 Corinthians 3:8). Once a person dies, his eternal destiny has been cinched. He is “reserved for judgment” (2 Peter 2:4, 9, 17, 3:7,  Hebrews 9:27).

 

Second, This passage does not claim they were in “hell.” The most likely interpretation of the spirits now in prison”  is similar to those who were slaves to sin in Noah’s day.  Just as it was in the days of Noah, when God spoke through other men,  Jesus now preaches (through men) to those spirits imprisoned by sin (those individuals who are spiritually dead, because of sin). This passage is talking about living people, not people who have died and are in hell.

 

Third, this would present several other problems. Why would Jesus go and preach only to those in Noah’s day? Why would Jesus exclude those who died prior to the flood, or those who have died since, and not give every dead person a second chance? Since God is no “respecter of persons” (Acts 10:34; Romans 2:11), God would not have Jesus go and single out Noah’s generation to be the only recipients of this preaching (Gospel) in the spirit realm.

And finally, what would have been the content of such preaching? Jesus could not have preached the whole Gospel in its entirety. The Gospel includes the resurrection of Jesus (Romans 4:25; 1 Corinthians 15:4). However, at the time this preaching was supposed to have occurred, Jesus had not yet been raised!

 

 

Let’s look at another companion verse that is also used to support this same claim that Jesus entered hell after His death on the cross.

Ephesians 4:8-10

8Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)

 

The view of Jesus descending to hell is further negated by the words of Jesus Himself.

Just before His death, Jesus said, “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit” (Luke 23:46). Upon death, His spirit, as all human spirits, went to the Father, not hell (Ecc 12:7).

Jesus’ body was in the grave dead (Rom 10:9, Gal 1:1, 1Peter 1:21, Rev 1:18) for three days (Mark 8:31), not hell.

 

 

 

Christ Speaking To Noah Theory

Christ did not exist during this time period (the days of Noah) especially if we acknowledge Jesus as the “true” seed of David; that is also why Jesus is not mentioned in the Old Testament.

The transliteration of this passage is confusing the way it has been presented in the KJV, as it is with many other versions.

 

The most correct and harmonious translation of this passage that I have been able to find is found in:

The Book Of Yahweh.

 

18 For Messiah has also suffered once for sins, the Just for the unjust, that He might bring us to Yahweh; we being dead in the flesh, but made alive by the Spirit—

19 He preached to those spiritually dead also,

20 Even as Yahweh, to the disobedient when the patience of Yahweh was waiting in the days of Noah, while an ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, was carried safely through the water.

21 The same figure: baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves us- not as removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to Yahweh for a clear conscience, and of the resurrection of Yahshua Messiah,

22 Who has gone into heaven, and is at the right hand of Yahweh; malakim, authorities, and 8powers having been made subject to Him.

 

Footnote 8: (– not yet all things Heb 2:8)

 

If we adapt the above passage for use in the KJV, it could be read as follows:

 

18 For Christ has also suffered once for sins, the Just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God; we being dead in the flesh, but made alive (quickened) by the Spirit—

19 He preached to those spiritually dead also,

20 Even as God, to the disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in the days of Noah, while an ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, was carried safely through the water.

21 The same figure: baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves us- not as removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, and of the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

22 Who has gone into heaven, and is at the right hand of God; angels, authorities, and 8powers having been made subject to Him.

 

 

 

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1 John 5:7-8 Three That Bear Record…., Three Are One

 

Ref:

Part 4:  Understanding The Math

6.  Three That Bear Record In Heaven

7.  And These Three Are One (1 John 5:7-8)

8.  How Can Three Be One? (1 John 5:7-8)

 

 

 

1 John 5:20 – This Is The True God

 

1 John 5:20 (NIV)

20 We know also that the Son of God (Jesus) has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him (God) who is true. And we are in him (God) who is true by being in his (God) Son Jesus Christ. He (God) is the true God and eternal life.

 

 

First, there are three pronouns (him, his and he) in this passage that we have to “correctly” determine who they are referring. It is the “He” in the last sentence that frequently causes some confusion because both God and the Son of God are mentioned in the same passage. But it is the context that determines to whom the phrase “true God” applies.

The passage mentions “him that is true” two times, and both times it is clearly referring to the Father. Since this verse refers twice to the Father as “the one who is true,” that is a strong indication that “the true God” in the last part of the verse is the same being.

 

Second, if holding the understanding that there is only one God and none else (No God the Son,  or “God the…”  anything else) (Isa 45:5-6) then this phrase “true God” should mean the same wherever it is written. The phrase “true God” is used four other times in the Bible (2 Chronicles 15:3; Jeremiah 10:10; John 17:3 and 1 Thessalonians 1:9) and in all four of these places, the “true God” refers to the Father and not the Son of God.

 

Jer 10:10 But the LORD (H3068) is the true God, he is the living God, and an everlasting king: at his wrath the earth shall tremble, and the nations shall not be able to abide his indignation.

 

This becomes especially relevant in John 17:3, which is Jesus prayer to God. In that prayer, Jesus calls God “the only true God.”

 

John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

 

Ask yourself this question:

 

Who gives eternal life? – The answer is, only the true God.

(Remember all things are either God arranged or God allowed. Nothing takes place unless God allows it.)

 

Romans 6:23  For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

John 12:49  For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.

John 12:50  And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.

John 17:2  As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he (God) should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

John 17:3  And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

Titus 1:2  In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

1John 5:11  And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.

 

 

 

In closing:

 

“the Son of God (Jesus) has come and has given us understanding”

What Understanding Did Jesus Provide

“And we are in him (God) who is true by being in his (God) Son Jesus Christ.”

How are we in Christ and in God at the same time? We are not literally inside the body of Christ or that of God. We are in (the will of) Christ when we are in (the will of) God (Mat 7:21, 12:50, John 14:23) who is the true God!

 

 

 

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Revelation 1:4, 1:8 & 4:8, Which Was, Which Is, Which Is To Come

 

 

“From Him (God)

“Which Is, And Which Was, And Which Is To Come”

 

God the Father, who is also known as Yahweh or Jehovah (LORD in the OT – Ref. The Name of God), is the One, “who is,” because in Exodus 3:14 God says to Moses, “I AM THAT I AM.”  which some say is an incomplete translation of the Hebrew wording, “Ehyeh Asshur Ehyeh.”  This Hebrew term is more accurately translated as, “I exist {present tense} as what I AM, and what I have always existed as {in the past tense}, and what I will continue to exist as {in the future}.”

 

This Hebrew phrase matches the Greek equivalent description in Revelation 1:4 perfectly as, “Him who is {in the present} and who was {in the past} and who is to come {in the future}.” (God is a Spirit- John 4:24; I change not– Malachi 3:6)

 

 

In Revelation 1:4, 1:8 & 4:8 John makes perfectly clear that the phrase “which is and which was and which is to come” is attributed solely to God the Almighty, not Jesus Christ, who although is indeed mighty, he is certainly not the “Almighty” (John 5:19, 30, 8:28, 14:28, 1Cor 11:3, 1Cor 15:27-28).

 

 

Note:

These passages do not say him “Which is [alive], and which was [dead], and which is to come.”  that would be referring to Jesus (Acts 17:31)

 

 

Revelation 1:4

John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are “before his throne.”

 

 

 

“And From Jesus…

The First Born From The Dead”

 

 

Revelation 1:5

John goes on in Revelation 1:5 to add another person saying, “and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth.” In doing this, John distinguishes Jesus from God spoken of in Revelation 1:4.
 

 

Revelation 4:8

And the four beasts had each of them six wings about him; and they were full of eyes within: and they rest not day and night, saying, Holy, holy, holy, Lord God Almighty, which was, and is, and is to come.

 

 

Now notice in Revelation 5:6,7:

Revelation 5:6 (ESV) And between the throne (of God) and the four living creatures and among the elders I saw a Lamb standing (Jesus Christ), as though it had been slain, with seven horns and with seven eyes, which are the seven spirits of God sent out into all the earth.

Revelation 5:7 And he (Jesus Christ) came and took the book out of the right hand of him (God) that sat upon the throne.

 

Therefore the one sitting on the throne is not Jesus, because in Revelation 5:6,7, we find Jesus depicted as the Lamb slain, who is found worthy to take the book from the right hand of the one sitting on the throne.

 

 

Supporting Scriptures

The Judge:

Acts 10:42 And he (Jesus) commanded us to preach unto the people, and to testify that it is he (Jesus) which was ordained of God to be the Judge of quick and dead.

Acts 17:31 Because he (God) hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man (Jesus) whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he (God) hath raised him (Jesus) from the dead.

Rom 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.

Rom 14:10 But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.

2Co 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad.

 

 

 

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Revelation 1:8 – Alpha & Omega…The Almighty

 

To Understand Revelation 1:8 Requires Starting at (Revelation 1:1)

In any passage of scripture, where we have a title (“the Almighty”) being used to identify someone,  it is vitally important that we associate the correct individual to the title in reference.  In this case, and in order to correctly understand (Revelation 1:8), we must first backup and start from the beginning of this book (Revelation 1:1) because it contains vital information and the necessary keys that will help us correctly identify who this title belongs to and who it does not.

In these last days God has spoken to us by his Son, and concerning his Son (Hebrews 1:1-2). Christ, as the head of his church (Ephesians 5:23), he has let his church know by what rules and methods he will proceed in his government; and, as the prophet of the church, he has made known to us the things that shall be hereafter. This is a revelation which God gave unto Christ, as Christ sustains the office of Mediator between God and man, he receives his instructions from God the Father (1 Timothy 2:5; Hebrews 8:6, 9:15, 12:24)

 

 

 

Revelation 1:1 

The First Line Proves Jesus is NOT God: 

For those that teach Jesus is God, it is hard (if not impossible) to “soundly” explain how (Revelation 1:1) in conjunction with (Hebrews 9:24) could possibly indicate Jesus is God (outside of misreading these passages). What these passages do undisputedly depict is that even in heaven Jesus and God are definitely not the same person (or being).

 

1.  How does Jesus receive a revelation from God if he is GOD? 

(Revelation 1:1-2) – The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:

 

2.  How Do We Explain Jesus “APPEARING BEFORE GOD” For Us, If Jesus Was God?

(Hebrews 9:24) – For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:

 

 

 

 

Revelation 1:1-2 Explained

 

The (4) Primary Characters involved

Identifying all the individuals mentioned in delivering this revelation to the Church we have:

 

1.  God: Who gave this revelation to Jesus

2.  Jesus: Who gave his testimony of God’s revelation to his messenger (an angel)

[This revelation Christ sent and signified by his angel. Observe, God gave it to Christ, and Christ employed an angel to communicate it to the churches. The angels are God’s messengers; they are ministering spirits to the heirs of salvation. They are Christ’s servants: principalities and powers are subject to him; all the angels of God are obliged to worship him.]

3.  The angel: Who then delivers this revelation to John

[The angels signified it to the apostle John. As the angels are the messengers of Christ, the ministers are the messengers of the churches; what they receive from heaven, they are to communicate to the churches. John was the apostle chosen for this service.]

4.  John: Who in turn bares record of this revelation to the church at large.

 

 

Scripture Verification:

(Revelation 1:1-2) (KJV)– The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John: 2Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.

 

(Revelation 1:1-2) (CEV) – This is what God showed to Jesus Christ, so that he could tell his servants what must happen soon. Christ then sent his angel with the message to his servant John. And John told everything that he had seen about God’s message and about what Jesus Christ had said and done.

 

John makes a distinction by dividing Deity i.e. “the word of God” from humanity i.e. “the testimony of Jesus” by the use of the conjunction, “AND.”

 

We can see throughout the book of Revelation that different individuals speak and are seen by John. The Bible tells us that John was in the Spirit ; whether this was a tangible face-to-face delivery or a vision we have only speculation nonetheless it says  John bare record (he was a witness to it/ he saw it, heard it) (Revelation 22:8) and what he bare record of was that of God’s word and the testimony of Jesus. We can prove that God himself spoke to John (Revelation 21:5-7) it reads in part; “And he said unto me“, “I will be their God,” and “he shall be my son”.

 

 

 

 

Revelation 1:4-6 Explained

 

God’s Throne or Jesus

(Revelation 1:4) –  John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne;

 

Unfortunately, this is NOT the throne of Jesus as many have so often mistakenly proclaimed.  According to scripture (Hebrews 12:2), this is the throne of God and Jesus is seated [now] at the right hand of God’s throne.

 

(Hebrews 12:2) –  Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

 

Of course as “Oneness” (or Trinitarian) we needed this verse to mean something different; claiming the “right hand” of God  is figurative not literal, that Jesus is not (literally) seated at the right hand of God (of course the scripture says that he is). We say that it is reflective of the “power” of God or “favorite” position, which both are true statements, that however does not change the “location” (or position) of where Jesus is “placed” in relation to God his Father; Either way, it denotes Jesus in a position correlated to the position of someone other than himself.

 

 

 

He “Who Is And Who Was And Who Is To Come” Is God

(Revelation 1:4-6 (NAS)) “John to the seven churches that are in Asia: Grace to you and peace, from Him (God the Father) who is and who was and who is to come; and from the seven Spirits who are before His throne; AND from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the first-born of the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth.  To him (Jesus) who loves us, and released us from our sins by his blood, AND he (Jesus) has made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father; to him be the glory and the dominion forever and ever.  Amen.”

 

Note: John in his writing addresses the “seven churches” in Asia.  John gives recognition to God the Father by addressing Him as, “Him who is and who was and who is to come.” (““…Him which is and which was and which is to come – KJV).  Many Christians mistake this phrase as referring to Jesus without carefully reading the grammatical structure of the paragraph.  The paragraph reads, “…Him who is and who was and who is to come AND from Jesus Christ.”  The word, “and,” is a conjunction, which divides and separates.  This alone PROVES Jesus is not the same as God, and later, in Revelation 1:8, this is verified.

 

God the Father, who is also known as Yahweh or Jehovah (LORD in the OT – Ref. The Name of God), is the One, “who is,” because in Exodus 3:14 God says to Moses, “I AM THAT I AM.”  which some say is an incomplete translation of the Hebrew wording, “Ehyeh Asshur Ehyeh.”  This Hebrew term is more accurately translated as, “I exist {present tense} as what I AM, and what I have always existed as {in the past tense}, and what I will continue to exist as {in the future}.”  This Hebrew phrase matches the Greek equivalent description in Revelation 1:4 perfectly as, “Him who is {in the present} and who was {in the past} and who is to come {in the future}.” (God is a Spirit- John 4:24; I change not- Malachi 3:6)

 

 

Jesus Cannot Be God If He Is The Firstborn From Among The Dead

Secondly, John writes concerning Jesus by calling him, “the faithful witness, the first-born of the dead,” who, “released us from our sins by his blood.”  God cannot die!

 

Jesus Is Not God If He Made A Kingdom Of Priests To, “HIS God”

Jesus has made his church to be a kingdom, priests, “to his God and Father.”  How could Jesus be “God” in heaven if his kingdom belongs to, “his God and Father?”  John says that Jesus released us from our sins through his blood, and made us to be “priests” to “his God.”  A “priest” is someone that mediates or reconciles men to God; therefore a priest cannot be God.

 

 

 

 

Revelation 1:5-7 Explained

The paragraph numbering system did not exist in the original scriptures, we must realize that verse (5) is a continuation of verse (4) which begins “AND from Jesus Christ”. Therefore, John is telling us about two individualsGod and Jesus. In this verse John now tell us a little bit about Jesus Christ, the first begotten of the dead, how he has made us (kings and priests) unto God his father, and verse (6) closes with Amen (the end). In verse (7) John tells us who all shall see Jesus (everyone) when he comes (Revelation 1:5-7) and finishes again with Amen (so be it, or the End).

 

 

 

 

Revelation 1:8 Explained

Why is verse 8 not Jesus?

Verse 7 says that He is coming in the clouds and those who pierced him will see him come. Why is verse 8 not this same Jesus?

 

(Revelation 1:7) is indeed in reference to Jesus but John’s statement about Jesus starts at verse 5 and ENDS at verse 7 with his last AMEN (so be it, or the End). Both verses (Revelation 1:6 and 7) are separate statements about Jesus. This is not the case with (Revelation 1:8). This is a significantly different statement.

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(Revelation 1:8) refers to God the Father, not Jesus Christ because the words, “Alpha and Omega,” (the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet) are attached to, “the Lord God…the Almighty.”  Jesus Christ is NEVER referred to anywhere in scripture as the “Almighty.”

 

The words, “Alpha and Omega” are different Greek words than “the first and the last.”  Alpha and Omega are defined as follows:

 

Alpha (al’-fah); the first letter of the Greek alphabet, sometimes signifying the value of 1; used as a symbolic letter, with omega (See 5598 meaning the end);

 

Omega (o’-meg-ah); the last letter of the Greek alphabet, i.e. (figuratively) the finality.

 

The Greek words for “first and last” spoken by Jesus the son of man are defined as follows:

 

First – 4413 protos (pro’-tos); contracted superlative of 4253; foremost (in time, place, order or importance): Jesus is foremost in rank or order of importance in the plan of God for man’s redemption.  The Father is Supreme and holds no rank because He alone exists as God.

 

Last – 2078 eschatos (es’-khat-os); a superlative probably from 2192 (in the sense of contiguity); farthest, final (of place or time): Jesus is of foremost importance in the realm of time; even unto the finality of time (as we know it), or the earth and heavens (as we know them).  For further reading regarding this concept, read 1 Corinthians 15:20-28 & 38-49.

 

Further proof is “the Almighty”. The Greek word for Almighty is Pantokrátoor. The Strong’s reference number for Pantokrátoor 3841 is defined as follows:

 

ALMIGHTY= NT:3841 pantokratoor, pantokratoros, ho; he who holds sway over all things; the ruler of all; almighty: used of God, 2 Corinthians 6:18 (From Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 2000 by Biblesoft)

 

ALMIGHTY = NT:3841 pantokrátœr; gen. pantokrátoros, masc. noun from pás (3956), all, every, and krátos (2904), power, strength, dominion. Ruler over all, omnipotent, almighty, spoken only of God as in 2 Corinthians 6:18; Revelation 1:8; 4:8; 11:17; 15:3; 16:7,14; 19:6,15; 21:22; Sept.: 2 Samuel 5:10; 7:25,27; Job 5:17; 8:5.  (From The Complete Word Study Bible and The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament Copyright © 1991, 1992, 1994, 2002 AMG International, Inc.)

 

NOTE: Revelation 1:4 uses the identical phrase as 1:8, “who is and who was and who is to come,” when referring to God, neither of these applies to Christ Jesus. Remember however, that in Revelation Chp. 1 verses 4 -5 must be read together in order to easily identify and distinguish the conjunction word (“AND”) between that verse which is in reference to God (vs. 4) and the following verse which is in reference to Jesus (vs. 5).

 

 

 Verses 4-5

Revelation 1:4-5 (KJV)

4  John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne;
5  And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

 

 

 

Verse 8

Revelation 1:8 (KJV)

8  I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

Beware: (There are several man-made errors contained in the KJV and this phrase (vs 8) contains one them.)

 

Warning! 

[ Be aware of the RED print in the KJV (started in 1899):  The problem you have relying on the Red Print (KJV) is that it is not always the correct reflection of who is speaking. Two things to consider in (Revelation 1:8): 1. the name Jesus is not mentioned; and 2. the word “Lord” in the New testament can apply to a man or God – (Ref. Are There Two Lords? Prove It! (Jude 1:4) ).  A portion of this passage is written in “RED” (KJV-1903); the “RED” print is said to indicate passages where Jesus himself is speaking.  Yet Jesus is NOT indicated in RED as being the person calling himself “The Almighty” but the red print in the first part of this verse helps induce this misleading and incorrect thought. There is however a more significant problem for those who blindly rely on the RED print (KJV). The best evidence of this is the following:

(Revelation 21:4-7) – “And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away. 5 And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful. 6 And he said [God said] unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely. He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I WILL BE HIS GOD, and he shall be MY SON.”

 

1.  This phrase “I will be his God, and he shall be my son” is either an indication of Jesus or God speaking. (We know Jesus never claimed anyone would be “his son” only God made that claim. The only other challenge lies in proving whether or not it was Jesus or God speaking).

 

2.  Revelation 21:6-7 actually reflects undeniable evidence indicating that it was not Jesus speaking (whose spoken words are said to be reflected in RED) but God himself speaking.

 

3.  If you recall John said “he said unto me, ……...” (vs 6) which was followed up by him saying “….I will be his God,” (vs 7) indicating that it was God himself speaking here to John. Jesus is not indicated (in RED) as the person speaking to John claiming to be God. Clearly it was God speaking to John. Only Jehovah (the LORD in the OT – Ref. The Name of God) has ever claimed to be God.]

 

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The Word Of God & The Testimony Of Jesus

Many Christians today believe that Jesus Christ is the “word” spoken of in the NT.  They use John 1:1 as their supposed proof.  Yet here in Revelation 1:9 John makes a distinction by dividing Deity i.e. “the word of God” from humanity i.e. “the testimony of Jesus” by the use of the conjunction, “and.”   By referring back to Revelation 1:2, we can see that this distinction was made before in the context.  Compare Revelation 1:2 and Revelation 1:9 side by side:

 

Revelation 1:9 – I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.  (KJV)

 

Revelation 1:2 – Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.  (KJV)

 

Word – 3056 logos (log’-os); from 3004; something said (including the thought); by implication a topic (subject of discourse), also reasoning (the mental faculty) or motive; by extension, a computation.

The “word” of God refers to what God said or communicated, to John (Revelation 1:1).  God communicated to John through a messenger; the message from God (the Father) was sent by the direction of Jesus Christ.  Jesus Christ received what God gave him (see Revelation 1:1).  That which God “said” (including God’s thoughts and the topics spoken about) is distinguished from the “testimony” of Jesus.  The Greek word for “testimony” is defined as follows:

 

Testimony – 3141 marturia (mar-too-ree’-ah); from 3144; evidence given (judicially or genitive case); here in Revelation 1:9 it is in the genitive case, and therefore means, “a witness.”  Marturia comes from the root Greek word martus (mar’-toos); meaning, a witness (literally it is used judicially or figuratively it is used in the genitive case); by analogy, a “martyr.”   Our English word for “martyr” is derived from the Greek root martus.

God cannot be a martyr, since God cannot die!  Thus we see the exact nature of the distinction between the “word of God” and the “testimony of Jesus.”   Furthermore, in Revelation 1:2, 9, “the testimony of Jesus” is the announcement of the gospel; the preaching of Christ as determined by the apostle’s testimony (v. 2, “all things that he saw”).  This testimony especially concerns Christ and is based upon a personal knowledge of him (Revelation 12:17; 19:10; 20:4).

It is believed that the apostle John was Jesus’ closest friend during his ministry years.  Many believe John is the apostle, “whom Jesus loved” (John 13:23; 20:2; 21:7, 20).  If John was this close to Jesus, don’t you think he would know if Jesus was in fact “God” Almighty?  His descriptions of Jesus throughout the Book of Revelation leave no room for doubt that Jesus is a man and not Deity.

 

 

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Revelation 1:8, 1:11, 21:6, 22:13 – Alpha and Omega

 

Alpha and Omega

 

Who is Alpha and Omega in Revelation 1:8, 1:11, 21:6, 22:13

This is a figure of speech. It’s meaning is debated because the identity of God is not always clear.

 

 

 

Revelation 1:8

Rev 1:8  I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

Alpha and Omega, in this passage, is clearly in reference to God, the Almighty.

 

Note: There are three things to consider in (Revelation 1:8):  (See also: Revelation 1:8 – Alpha & Omega…The Almighty )

1. The name Jesus is not mentioned, It does not say “saith the Lord Jesus.”

2. The word “Lord” in the New testament can apply to a man or God – (Ref. Are There Two Lords? Prove It! (Jude 1:4) ); and

3. We have established that all passages containing “which is, and which was, and which is to come,” are all in reference to God, and not Jesus (Ref:  Revelation 1:4, 1:8 & 4:8, Which Was, Which Is, Which Is To Come )

 

 

 

Revelation 1:11

Rev 1:11  Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

Note: This is one of those debated passages, as we are not directly given the identity of who is speaking in this passage, thus it is speculative. It depends on your position as to the true meaning of “Alpha and Omega, the first and the last,” which again is speculative. Since both could potentially hold the same meaning and arguably hold different meanings. It is argued that Jesus and God, at times, can hold the same titles, as explained above with the word “Lord.” (It can be argued that Jesus is the first born from the dead, the first and last atonement man will ever need, the Christ, etc… just as God is the first and only God that will ever exist, from the beginning of time to the end, etc.).

In Rev 1:12 we then read John turns to see who the voice came from. This is where speculation comes into question because in Rev 1:8 we know the Almighty is God but in Rev 1:18 it reads “I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore,..” which we know is not applicable to an Almighty God, but God raised Jesus from the dead (Acts 4:10, 13:30, Rom 7:4, 10:9, 1Cor 15:15, Gal 1:1, Col 2:12, 1Peter 1:21). 

Furthermore, Rev 1:11 does not conflict if we understand the voice coming from God, it still remains in harmony with all remaining passages. Although it can be argued, often because of the man-made (or added) Red lettering, it has not been proven false or in error.

Note:  A biblical analysis works to resolve controversial issues maintaining both correctness and overall harmony of all the scriptures, not applying scriptures in such a way that they would contradict or potentially conflict with each other, instead of harmonizing with each other.

Similarly, if two writers present testimony that is contradictory, doubt is cast on the integrity of one or both records.

Many have charged that the New Testament contains contradictions. Contrary is defined by Webster as “a proposition so related to another that, though both may be false, they cannot both be true.” Thus, the statement, “Joe and Bill are in this room” contradicts the statement, “Only Joe is in this room.” It does not, however, contradict the statement, “Joe is in this room.” Omission does not necessarily constitute contradiction.

 

 

 

 

Revelation 21:6

The New Heaven and the New Earth

Rev 21:1  And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

Rev 21:2  And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.

Rev 21:3  And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God.

Rev 21:4  And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.

Rev 21:5  And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful.

Rev 21:6  And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely.

Rev 21:7  He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son.

 

 

 

 

Revelation 22:13

Note:

In accordance with the Codex Alexandrinus and the Codex Vaticanus manuscripts,

the phrase I am the Alpha and Omega is omitted, thus this passage is not at issue.

Several published versions are listed below.

 

Worldwide English (New Testament) (WE)

13 I am the First and the Last. I am the Beginning and the End.

 

 

The Book Of Yahweh (The Holy Scriptures)

13 I am the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End.

 

Note: However, even if Alpha and Omega were included, we would still come to the same conclusion. In Rev 22:1, 3 we can see there are two entities (or personages) being mentioned (and only one is called God, the other the Lamb) yet it is clear that the central figure in control is God. Rev 22:3 tells us that “his servants shall serve him” (1Cor 15:27-28) and Rev 22:4 says “we shall see his face (God); and his (God) name shall be in their foreheads (Rev 3:12, 14:1). But the confusion starts from Rev 22:13-14 which is argued as to who is speaking; it is either God or Jesus. This is further complicated because a few passages later we have Jesus clearly indicated as speaking Rev 22:16-17.

However, we must again remember that the advent of modern paragraphs and numbering did not exist then. God’s statements ended in Rev 22:13 and Rev 22:14 reflect promise to those who obeyed God’s commandments

Revelation 22:14 (KJV)
14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.

Jesus comments (Rev 22:16 ) are separate following that of God’s. Again this is more factual than not and although it can be argued it has not been proven incorrect. It is also best harmonizes with scripture and God’s plan of salvation (1 Timothy 2:5; Hebrews 9:24, Acts 17:30-31).

 

It is clear that a careful reading of the immediate content and surrounding passages must all be considered. Alpha & Omega are clearly associated with God. We therefore cannot just speculatively declare Jesus to any title that may belong to God (the Almighty, etc.) when it is not in the original writings as such.

 

 

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Revelation 4:2 – And One Sat On The Throne

John was caught up into heaven and there he saw one seated on the throne; at least in reference to (Revelation 4:2) where only one throne is mentioned. Some argue that this throne belonged to God therefore only God existed and Jesus must be God since a second throne was not mentioned. Unfortunately they omit several things that must be made clear.

 

(1.) First, we seem to be limiting the seating capacity of this throne (which belonged to God the Father), for Jesus was allowed to sit with God, on his Father’s throne (Revelation 3:21).

 

(2.) Second, Jesus did not have to be God to have a throne given him from God. Nothing precluded God from having a throne for his Son Jesus, who is King of Kings and Lord of Lords and it was God who gave Jesus the throne of his father (or ancestor) David (Luke 1:32). The only criteria was for Jesus to overcome.  Jesus said for those who overcome (as he did) they will be allowed to sit with Jesus on his throne (Revelation 3:21). Whether the thrones are literal or figurative is irrelevant, for a distinction is made clear nonetheless, God has a throne and Jesus has a throne given him from GOD. We can only speculate if the throne Jesus refers to as “my throne” is actually that which King David physically ruled from, or is it a metaphor or a different type of throne.

 

(Revelation 3:21)  “To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.”

 

(Luke 1:32)  “He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David

 

(Revelation 1:4-6)  “Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his [God] throne; And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood [Jesus], 6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever.”
 

 

“My Lord and my God”

 

The phrase “My Lord and my God” is one many misinterpret to be indicating something that it isn’t. Theologians have said, The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus God: “And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God” –  John 20:28.  When we intentionally isolate this one verse from its entire passage of scriptures (John chapter 20) , it’s done so as to present it incorrectly or out of context. We can only speculate as to why Thomas said what he said, but being dubbed “doubting” Thomas it is understandable that his statement was made in a moment of shock/disbelief (Jesus appearing out of nowhere), similar to someone saying “Oh my God” where did you come from? (even though you are not God).

 

Nonetheless, even those who do attempt to present doubting Thomas’ words out of context (My Lord and my God) they cannot honestly claim that the apostle John believed Jesus was God. When you continue reading  the rest of his passage (John 20:30-31) it is clear from the authors’ writing (the Apostle John who was also present when this all took place), “these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God”, it was NOT written so you would believe Jesus was God.

 

John 20:27-31 –Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. 28And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. 29Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed. 30And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: 31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. 

 

 

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